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Where Was Baptism? The Missing Sacrament

Anthony Pritchard

Well-Known Member
Acts 22:16
‘Now why do you delay? Get up and be baptized, and wash away your sins by calling on His name.’

How does this verse say a person gets "baptized?" By being immersed in water? Nope. By "calling on His name!" Thus the meaning is Get up and be spiritually baptized into Christ, and wash away your sins, with the washing of regeneration. When and if God credits your faith as righteousness, you have "called upon His name!"
Van, once again you are not answering the question I asked.

I did not ask whether the Old Testament saints were ultimately perfected through Christ. Nor did I deny that they were.

I asked where Scripture actually describes Abraham, David, Isaiah, Daniel, Elijah, or any other Old Testament saint receiving a postmortem spiritual baptism into Christ.

Hebrews 11:39-40 and Hebrews 12:23 say they were made perfect. They do not describe a postmortem spiritual baptism.

Likewise, Acts 22:16 cannot simply be assumed to refer to spiritual baptism because that is the very point under dispute.

My question remains unchanged: Where does Scripture actually describe the event you are asserting took place?
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Van, once again you are not answering the question I asked.

I did not ask whether the Old Testament saints were ultimately perfected through Christ. Nor did I deny that they were.

I asked where Scripture actually describes Abraham, David, Isaiah, Daniel, Elijah, or any other Old Testament saint receiving a postmortem spiritual baptism into Christ.

Hebrews 11:39-40 and Hebrews 12:23 say they were made perfect. They do not describe a postmortem spiritual baptism.

Likewise, Acts 22:16 cannot simply be assumed to refer to spiritual baptism because that is the very point under dispute.

My question remains unchanged: Where does Scripture actually describe the event you are asserting took place?
Thanks for the clarity, the OT saints were made perfect by their spiritual baptism into Christ. They were made perfect by the washing of regeneration.

Let me see if you will answer this: How does an individual become "in Him, in the Beloved, in Christ?" Of course my answer is by being called into His kingdom, baptized into His kingdom, sanctified into His kingdom, believed into His kingdom. We are in Christ by God's doing. And only in Christ are we made alive, undergoing the washing of regeneration.

Colossians 2:10 NASB
and in Him you have been made complete, and He is the head over every ruler and authority;

So the assertion is not an assumption, but a logical necessity.
 

Anthony Pritchard

Well-Known Member
Thanks for the clarity, the OT saints were made perfect by their spiritual baptism into Christ. They were made perfect by the washing of regeneration.

Let me see if you will answer this: How does an individual become "in Him, in the Beloved, in Christ?" Of course my answer is by being called into His kingdom, baptized into His kingdom, sanctified into His kingdom, believed into His kingdom. We are in Christ by God's doing. And only in Christ are we made alive, undergoing the washing of regeneration.

Colossians 2:10 NASB
and in Him you have been made complete, and He is the head over every ruler and authority;

So the assertion is not an assumption, but a logical necessity.
Thank you, but this still does not answer the question.

I did not ask for a theological inference. I asked for a scriptural description of the event you claim occurred.

You continue to assert that Old Testament saints were spiritually baptized into Christ after death, but you have not provided a single passage that describes Abraham, David, Isaiah, Daniel, Elijah, or any other Old Testament saint receiving such a baptism. You have provided exactly nothing to establish that claim, nor can you because it is not in the Bible at all.

Hebrews 11:39-40 says they were made perfect. Hebrews 12:23 calls them the spirits of just men made perfect. Neither passage describes a postmortem baptism.

Saying that such a baptism is a "logical necessity" is simply acknowledging that the doctrine is being inferred rather than taught. My question remains unchanged: Where does Scripture actually describe the event you are asserting took place?

As to your question, Romans 6:3 expressly speaks of being baptized into Christ. The difference is that Romans 6 actually mentions baptism into Christ.

My question remains: where does Scripture describe Abraham, David, Isaiah, Daniel, Elijah, or any other Old Testament saint receiving the postmortem spiritual baptism you are asserting?

You continue to argue that such an event must have occurred, but you have yet to cite a passage that actually describes it occurring. In fact, you have not cited such a passage because there is not one to be found anywhere in Scripture.

Hebrews 11:39-40 says they were made perfect. Hebrews 12:23 calls them the spirits of just men made perfect. Neither text mentions a postmortem baptism into Christ.

At this point, your position rests not on a text that describes the event, but on an inference that you believe is necessary. Yet an inference, however strongly held, is not the same as a biblical statement. Scripture says they were made perfect. Scripture does not say they were postmortemly baptized into Christ.

So the question remains unchanged: where does Scripture actually describe the event you are asserting took place?
 

percho

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I have a question about being, "made perfect".

Let's say one [Bob] has been indwelt with the Holy Spirit. Is that one [Bob] made perfect or is that one [Bob] just in Christ awaiting perfection?

Is the having been saved, that is put in Christ, that is having the first-fruit of the Spirt, the hope of one's [Bob's] perfection?

For reference Romans 8:11-25 esp V's 11,23,24,25

1 Thes 4:18 1 Cor 15:50,51 When does one [Bob} the total of Bob, become totally perfect?



These all died according to faith, not having received the promises, but having seen them afar off and welcoming [them], and confessing that they were strangers and pilgrims on the earth. Heb 11:13 English Majority Text 2009

Are all of those considered to be in the bosom of the Abraham? They are dead in the faith of the Abraham. That faith being that in his seed [singular] all the nations of the earth will be blessed.

IMHO the dead in Christ are dead in the faith of the seed of the Abraham.

Awaiting, the hope, the redemption of the body.

I will let you all relate the above to baptism for I do not know if I can yet I believe it dose.
 

Anthony Pritchard

Well-Known Member
I have a question about being, "made perfect".
My understanding is this:

I would distinguish between being made perfect spiritually and the final redemption of the body.

Believers possess eternal life now and are new creatures in Christ. Yet Romans 8 says we still groan within ourselves, waiting for the adoption, namely the redemption of our body.

The new man sins not:

"Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God." (1 John 3:9)

Thus, when Hebrews speaks of the spirits of just men made perfect, I have no difficulty affirming that. Spiritual perfection and bodily redemption are not the same thing.

The redeemed still await the resurrection and glorification of the body:

"...even we ourselves groan within ourselves, waiting for the adoption, to wit, the redemption of our body." (Romans 8:23)

Therefore, I do not equate being "made perfect" in Hebrews with the claim that Old Testament saints underwent a postmortem spiritual baptism into Christ. Hebrews says they were made perfect. It does not describe such a baptism taking place.

Scripture repeatedly points to faith as the means by which they were counted righteous before God.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Thank you, but this still does not answer the question.

I did not ask for a theological inference. I asked for a scriptural description of the event you claim occurred.

You continue to assert that Old Testament saints were spiritually baptized into Christ after death, but you have not provided a single passage that describes Abraham, David, Isaiah, Daniel, Elijah, or any other Old Testament saint receiving such a baptism. You have provided exactly nothing to establish that claim, nor can you because it is not in the Bible at all.

Hebrews 11:39-40 says they were made perfect. Hebrews 12:23 calls them the spirits of just men made perfect. Neither passage describes a postmortem baptism.

Saying that such a baptism is a "logical necessity" is simply acknowledging that the doctrine is being inferred rather than taught. My question remains unchanged: Where does Scripture actually describe the event you are asserting took place?

As to your question, Romans 6:3 expressly speaks of being baptized into Christ. The difference is that Romans 6 actually mentions baptism into Christ.

My question remains: where does Scripture describe Abraham, David, Isaiah, Daniel, Elijah, or any other Old Testament saint receiving the postmortem spiritual baptism you are asserting?

You continue to argue that such an event must have occurred, but you have yet to cite a passage that actually describes it occurring. In fact, you have not cited such a passage because there is not one to be found anywhere in Scripture.

Hebrews 11:39-40 says they were made perfect. Hebrews 12:23 calls them the spirits of just men made perfect. Neither text mentions a postmortem baptism into Christ.

At this point, your position rests not on a text that describes the event, but on an inference that you believe is necessary. Yet an inference, however strongly held, is not the same as a biblical statement. Scripture says they were made perfect. Scripture does not say they were postmortemly baptized into Christ.

So the question remains unchanged: where does Scripture actually describe the event you are asserting took place?
Sir, I proved the OT saints were made perfect before they entered heaven. I proved saints are made perfect "in Him." Therefore I proved the OT saints were "baptized" into Christ. Full Stop

You misrepresented what Hebrews 11:39-40 says, it says the OT saints had to "wait" to be made perfect, and were not immediately made perfect upon physical death like under the New Covenant, to be absent from the body is to be present with the Lord. But, after the New Covenant in His Blood was inaugurated, then they joined with the saints made perfect.

So I have answered your question multiple times, they were baptized into Christ, placed into Christ, believed into Christ, called into Christ when they were made complete "in Him." Your " post-Morten" baptism is their transfer into Christ.
 

Martin Marprelate

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You misrepresented what Hebrews 11:39-40 says, it says the OT saints had to "wait" to be made perfect, and were not immediately made perfect upon physical death like under the New Covenant, to be absent from the body is to be present with the Lord. But, after the New Covenant in His Blood was inaugurated, then they joined with the saints made perfect.
Hebrews 11:39. 'And all these [O.T. saints] , having obtained a good testimony by faith, did not receive the promise.....'
What promise was it that they did not receive?
Why Christ, of course (Acts 13:23, 32-33). He is the accomplishment of all God's promises (Acts 26:6; 1 Cor. 1:20). And the promise came to them by faith - how else? Like Abraham (John 8:58), they were looking forward to Christ (Heb. 11:13) by faith as we now look back. They believed the promises of God, as we receive His testimony in the N.T.
Hebrews 11:40. 'God having provided something better for us.....' The 'better' thing that we have is the fulfilment of the Everlasting Covenant, which is Christ. The contrast here is the promise given and the promise performed. This is why the New Covenant is frequently described as "better" than the Old (or 'first' - Heb 8:6 etc.). We now have a far better view of Christ than the O.T. saints had; they saw Him chiefly through types and promises, whereas we see Him through the acomplishment and fulfilment of them. They looked for a Christ who would come and put away their sins; we see a Christ who has come and put them away.
.... that they should not be made perfect without us.' 'The law made nothing perfect,' but the bringing in of a better hope did. (Heb. 7:19).
The O.T. saints were not saved by keeping the Old Covenant law. It promised no more than long life in the Promised Land, and did not deliver even that because no one kept it perfectly (Acts 15:10). They were made perfect by the blood of Christ, through faith, just as we are. In that respect, and that alone, the O.T. saints were not made perfect without us; we are both made perfect in just the same way.

Otherwise, we end up with Abraham waiting for Christ for 2,000 years in his own bosom! Abraham's bosom is mentioned only in Luke 16:22-23 in the parable of the rich man and Lazarus. We really should not draw doctrine from the peripheries of a parable. Lazarus is not asleep in Abraham's bosom, he is being comforted (v.25), no doubt with every tear being wiped from his eye. In John 13:23 KJV, John is described as 'leaning on Jesus' bosom.' This means no more than that he was reclining at the table with his head just below his Lord's (c.f. also Matt. 8:11).
I am in no doubt The O.T. saints were in heaven as soon as they died in Christ. Eccl. 12:7 and Psalm 97:10 apply equally to O.T. and N.T. believers.
 

Anthony Pritchard

Well-Known Member
Sir, I proved the OT saints were made perfect before they entered heaven. I proved saints are made perfect "in Him."
Brother, you make me ponder.

I do not agree with everything you believe you have proven, but I think you may be onto something, and I need time to think it through.

If you would grant me that time, I would be in your debt.

I genuinely appreciate that you make me think.
 
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Wesley Briggman

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
"Before discussing baptismal typology, sacramental grace, or New Covenant ordinances..."

Are baptism and communion means of grace? | GotQuestions.org
Quite simply, baptism and communion are separate from grace and are not a means to it. The rituals of the church do not confer grace, and they cannot merit salvation. It would be more proper to say the ordinances are the signs of grace, not the means of grace.

Is "sacaremental grace" endorsed outside of the RCC?
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Hebrews 11:39. 'And all these [O.T. saints] , having obtained a good testimony by faith, did not receive the promise.....'
What promise was it that they did not receive?
Why Christ, of course (Acts 13:23, 32-33). He is the accomplishment of all God's promises (Acts 26:6; 1 Cor. 1:20). And the promise came to them by faith - how else? Like Abraham (John 8:58), they were looking forward to Christ (Heb. 11:13) by faith as we now look back. They believed the promises of God, as we receive His testimony in the N.T.
Hebrews 11:40. 'God having provided something better for us.....' The 'better' thing that we have is the fulfilment of the Everlasting Covenant, which is Christ. The contrast here is the promise given and the promise performed. This is why the New Covenant is frequently described as "better" than the Old (or 'first' - Heb 8:6 etc.). We now have a far better view of Christ than the O.T. saints had; they saw Him chiefly through types and promises, whereas we see Him through the acomplishment and fulfilment of them. They looked for a Christ who would come and put away their sins; we see a Christ who has come and put them away.
.... that they should not be made perfect without us.' 'The law made nothing perfect,' but the bringing in of a better hope did. (Heb. 7:19).
The O.T. saints were not saved by keeping the Old Covenant law. It promised no more than long life in the Promised Land, and did not deliver even that because no one kept it perfectly (Acts 15:10). They were made perfect by the blood of Christ, through faith, just as we are. In that respect, and that alone, the O.T. saints were not made perfect without us; we are both made perfect in just the same way.

Otherwise, we end up with Abraham waiting for Christ for 2,000 years in his own bosom! Abraham's bosom is mentioned only in Luke 16:22-23 in the parable of the rich man and Lazarus. We really should not draw doctrine from the peripheries of a parable. Lazarus is not asleep in Abraham's bosom, he is being comforted (v.25), no doubt with every tear being wiped from his eye. In John 13:23 KJV, John is described as 'leaning on Jesus' bosom.' This means no more than that he was reclining at the table with his head just below his Lord's (c.f. also Matt. 8:11).
I am in no doubt The O.T. saints were in heaven as soon as they died in Christ. Eccl. 12:7 and Psalm 97:10 apply equally to O.T. and N.T. believers.
LOL, here we have someone denying the very words of Christ, who said Abraham was in Abraham's bosom.
 

Anthony Pritchard

Well-Known Member
Hebrews 11:39. 'And all these [O.T. saints] , having obtained a good testimony by faith, did not receive the promise.....'
What promise was it that they did not receive?
Why Christ, of course (Acts 13:23, 32-33). He is the accomplishment of all God's promises (Acts 26:6; 1 Cor. 1:20). And the promise came to them by faith - how else? Like Abraham (John 8:58), they were looking forward to Christ (Heb. 11:13) by faith as we now look back. They believed the promises of God, as we receive His testimony in the N.T.
Hebrews 11:40. 'God having provided something better for us.....' The 'better' thing that we have is the fulfilment of the Everlasting Covenant, which is Christ. The contrast here is the promise given and the promise performed. This is why the New Covenant is frequently described as "better" than the Old (or 'first' - Heb 8:6 etc.). We now have a far better view of Christ than the O.T. saints had; they saw Him chiefly through types and promises, whereas we see Him through the acomplishment and fulfilment of them. They looked for a Christ who would come and put away their sins; we see a Christ who has come and put them away.
.... that they should not be made perfect without us.' 'The law made nothing perfect,' but the bringing in of a better hope did. (Heb. 7:19).
The O.T. saints were not saved by keeping the Old Covenant law. It promised no more than long life in the Promised Land, and did not deliver even that because no one kept it perfectly (Acts 15:10). They were made perfect by the blood of Christ, through faith, just as we are. In that respect, and that alone, the O.T. saints were not made perfect without us; we are both made perfect in just the same way.

Otherwise, we end up with Abraham waiting for Christ for 2,000 years in his own bosom! Abraham's bosom is mentioned only in Luke 16:22-23 in the parable of the rich man and Lazarus. We really should not draw doctrine from the peripheries of a parable. Lazarus is not asleep in Abraham's bosom, he is being comforted (v.25), no doubt with every tear being wiped from his eye. In John 13:23 KJV, John is described as 'leaning on Jesus' bosom.' This means no more than that he was reclining at the table with his head just below his Lord's (c.f. also Matt. 8:11).
I am in no doubt The O.T. saints were in heaven as soon as they died in Christ. Eccl. 12:7 and Psalm 97:10 apply equally to O.T. and N.T. believers.
Brother Martin,

I agree with much of what you have written, particularly that the Old Testament saints were not saved by keeping the Law, but by the blood of Christ through faith, just as we are.

However, I find myself struggling with the implications of that truth.

Abraham was not merely promised justification at some future date. Scripture says he was justified by faith. David was not merely promised forgiveness; his sins were forgiven. The cross lay in their future historically, but the efficacy of Christ's sacrifice was already being applied to those who believed.

This is where I find myself pondering the discussion with Van, though not in the way he presents it. I see no biblical basis for a postmortem baptism into Christ, nor do I accept soul sleep. Yet I can understand why such ideas arise. They appear to be attempts to reconcile how Old Testament saints could be saved before the historical accomplishment of the cross.

The difficulty is that both solutions seem to run against the broader testimony of Scripture. The saints are presented as truly justified, truly forgiven, and truly accepted by God through faith. Scripture also presents believers as conscious after death and in fellowship with God. Therefore, neither soul sleep nor a later postmortem union with Christ seems necessary.

If Abraham was truly saved, then he was saved by Christ. If he was saved by Christ, then he was saved by Christ's death. If he was saved by Christ's death, then the reality described in Romans 6:3 applied to him no less than it applies to us. The cross was future in history, but not future in its efficacy. The Lamb was slain from the foundation of the world, and the saving power of that sacrifice was as certain as the God who ordained it.

That is where I find myself wrestling. If salvation was real for Abraham, then it was not a lesser salvation than ours. If he was justified, forgiven, reconciled, and accepted by God through faith in the promised Redeemer, then all of that rested upon the same sacrifice that saves us today.

Therefore, I do not see any need to invent a postmortem baptism into Christ. Abraham was not waiting centuries to become united to the Savior in whom he had already believed. Rather, the saving benefits of Christ's death were being applied to him through faith long before the cross occurred in history.

I agree that the Old Testament saints had not yet witnessed the fulfillment of the promise in history. What I am wrestling with is whether they lacked any of the saving realities secured by that promise. They did not.

Perhaps the distinction is not between efficacy and no efficacy, nor between salvation and no salvation, but between efficacy and fulfillment. The efficacy of Christ's sacrifice extends from the foundation of the world into all eternity. Every person ever saved was saved by Christ and Christ alone. Yet the fulfillment of that sacrifice occurred at a specific point in history when Christ actually suffered, died, rose again, and entered into the heavenly sanctuary as our High Priest.

Thus Abraham was truly saved before Calvary, not because the cross was unnecessary, but because its efficacy was already certain and effective in the purpose of God. What Abraham anticipated by promise was what Christ later fulfilled in history.

The more I reflect on it, the more difficult it becomes for me to divide the redeemed into different classes. There is one Savior, one sacrifice, one salvation, and one redeemed people. The Old Testament saints looked forward in faith to the promised Redeemer; we look back to the fulfilled work of that same Redeemer. But both were saved by Christ alone.
 

Martin Marprelate

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Abraham was not merely promised justification at some future date. Scripture says he was justified by faith. David was not merely promised forgiveness; his sins were forgiven. The cross lay in their future historically, but the efficacy of Christ's sacrifice was already being applied to those who believed.
Yes. That is effectively what I posted.
The more I reflect on it, the more difficult it becomes for me to divide the redeemed into different classes. There is one Savior, one sacrifice, one salvation, and one redeemed people.

Exactly. I am preaching on Matthew 25:31ff tomorow, and it is clear to me that the 'nations' are divided into only two classes: the sheep and the goats. There is no third realm, no Limbus, no Purgatory, just the saved and the lost. Those who trusted in Christ and those who didn't. The scribe whom the Lord Jesus told he was not far from the kingdom of God, was lost.
 

Anthony Pritchard

Well-Known Member
Is "sacaremental grace" endorsed outside of the RCC?
In my view, the answer is yes and no.

Various traditions outside Rome, including some Lutheran, Anglican, Orthodox, and Restorationist groups, hold some form of sacramental or baptismal grace. So the concept is not unique to the RCC.

However, what has always troubled me about sacramental systems is the number of exceptions, qualifications, and workarounds required to account for Scripture itself.

Cornelius received the Holy Spirit before baptism (Acts 10:44-48). The thief on the cross was promised paradise without baptism. Abraham was justified by faith before Christian baptism existed. David was forgiven apart from New Covenant sacramental participation. The Old Testament saints were saved through faith in the promised Redeemer long before any New Covenant ordinance was instituted.

As a result, one often encounters explanations involving "baptism of desire," "extraordinary circumstances," "implicit faith," and other special provisions designed to accommodate examples found in Scripture.

That raises an obvious question: if grace can be received apart from the sacrament whenever Scripture requires it, are the sacraments truly the means by which grace is imparted, or are they signs and testimonies of grace already received?

The New Testament repeatedly presents faith in Christ as the instrument by which salvation is received. The ordinances follow as acts of obedience and testimony, not as mechanisms that dispense saving grace.

To me, the need for so many exceptions shows the system itself is being adjusted to fit the text rather than derived from it. Cornelius, the thief on the cross, Abraham, David, and the Old Testament saints are not obscure exceptions hidden away in Scripture. They stand at the very center of the biblical doctrine of salvation. If they received God's saving grace apart from sacramental administration, then faith in God's promise, not sacerdotal mediation, must be the foundation of salvation.
 

Anthony Pritchard

Well-Known Member
Sir, I proved the OT saints were made perfect before they entered heaven. I proved saints are made perfect "in Him." Therefore I proved the OT saints were "baptized" into Christ. Full Stop
Brother Van,

I have given your argument considerable thought. While I still reject the idea of a postmortem baptism into Christ, or soul sleep, I believe you have touched on an important truth.

The Old Testament saints were truly saved. Abraham was justified. David was forgiven. The prophets and saints of old were saved by grace through faith in the promised Redeemer.

The promise of that Redeemer begins in the Garden itself. From the beginning, men were saved by faith in God's promise. Their faith was not empty. It resulted in actual salvation in their own time, not merely a future possibility of salvation.

This is where I have reconsidered part of your argument.

Romans 6:3 says, "Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?"

This baptism into Christ's death is the very reality of salvation. At the moment a person is saved, he is united with Christ in His death and becomes a participant in all that His death accomplished. Every saved person is baptized into His death at the moment of salvation, whether looking forward to the cross or looking back to it.

If Abraham was truly saved, then he was saved by Christ. If he was saved by Christ, then he was saved by Christ's death. If he was saved by Christ's death, then the reality described in Romans 6:3 was true of him no less than it is true of us.

The Old Testament saints did not understand this as clearly as we do because it had not yet been revealed. They knew the promise. We know the fulfillment. Yet the reality itself was no less true because it had not yet been fully revealed.

The Lamb was slain from the foundation of the world. The effectiveness of Christ's sacrifice extends throughout all time, past, present, and future. Therefore, when an Old Testament believer trusted in God's promise and was saved, he was saved by the same Christ and the same sacrifice that saves us today. The sacrifice was effective before Calvary, not because the cross was unnecessary, but because its fulfillment was certain in the purpose of God.

Where I continue to disagree with you is the idea of a postmortem baptism into Christ. I see no need for such a doctrine. If Romans 6:3 describes the saving union with Christ that occurs in salvation, then that baptism occurred when Abraham believed, not centuries after he died.

The death into which Abraham was baptized was future from his perspective. The death into which we are baptized is past from ours. But in either case, salvation rests upon the same sacrifice.

The historic cross remains absolutely necessary. Christ truly had to die, rise again, and ascend. The cross is not a mere historical footnote. It is the fulfillment of God's redemptive plan.

Therefore, my present view is that the Old Testament saints were not waiting for salvation, nor were they waiting for a future baptism into Christ. They were already saved by grace through faith in the promised Redeemer. What they awaited was not salvation, but the fulfillment in history of the salvation they already possessed by faith.

Thus I see one Savior, one sacrifice, one salvation, and one redeemed people.

Yours in Him,

Tony
 

canadyjd

Well-Known Member
Hebrews 11:39. 'And all these [O.T. saints] , having obtained a good testimony by faith, did not receive the promise.....'
What promise was it that they did not receive?
Why Christ, of course (Acts 13:23, 32-33). He is the accomplishment of all God's promises (Acts 26:6; 1 Cor. 1:20). And the promise came to them by faith - how else? Like Abraham (John 8:58), they were looking forward to Christ (Heb. 11:13) by faith as we now look back. They believed the promises of God, as we receive His testimony in the N.T.
Hebrews 11:40. 'God having provided something better for us.....' The 'better' thing that we have is the fulfilment of the Everlasting Covenant, which is Christ. The contrast here is the promise given and the promise performed. This is why the New Covenant is frequently described as "better" than the Old (or 'first' - Heb 8:6 etc.). We now have a far better view of Christ than the O.T. saints had; they saw Him chiefly through types and promises, whereas we see Him through the acomplishment and fulfilment of them. They looked for a Christ who would come and put away their sins; we see a Christ who has come and put them away.
.... that they should not be made perfect without us.' 'The law made nothing perfect,' but the bringing in of a better hope did. (Heb. 7:19).
The O.T. saints were not saved by keeping the Old Covenant law. It promised no more than long life in the Promised Land, and did not deliver even that because no one kept it perfectly (Acts 15:10). They were made perfect by the blood of Christ, through faith, just as we are. In that respect, and that alone, the O.T. saints were not made perfect without us; we are both made perfect in just the same way.

Otherwise, we end up with Abraham waiting for Christ for 2,000 years in his own bosom! Abraham's bosom is mentioned only in Luke 16:22-23 in the parable of the rich man and Lazarus. We really should not draw doctrine from the peripheries of a parable. Lazarus is not asleep in Abraham's bosom, he is being comforted (v.25), no doubt with every tear being wiped from his eye. In John 13:23 KJV, John is described as 'leaning on Jesus' bosom.' This means no more than that he was reclining at the table with his head just below his Lord's (c.f. also Matt. 8:11).
I am in no doubt The O.T. saints were in heaven as soon as they died in Christ. Eccl. 12:7 and Psalm 97:10 apply equally to O.T. and N.T. believers.
Well stated.

I will add the phrase “made perfect” likely means “made complete”, in context.

The OT saints looked forward to the coming Messiah, saved by faith in God’s promise of His coming.

New Testament believers have already received that promise, as Christ has come.

Therefore, we are all (OT and New) “made complete” by faith in God’s promised Messiah, which is what is meant by saying they would not be made perfect apart from us.

It is not saying we are saved at the same TIME, but rather, we are saved in the same MANNER.

We are all saved by grace through faith.

Any suggestion of some kind of post death spiritual baptism is pure speculation in hopes of supporting unsound doctrine.

Simply not biblical, despite statements of imaginary biblical support.

Peace to you
 

percho

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
That is where I find myself wrestling. If salvation was real for Abraham, then it was not a lesser salvation than ours. If he was justified, forgiven, reconciled, and accepted by God through faith in the promised Redeemer, then all of that rested upon the same sacrifice that saves us today.
The above you wrote is why I believe God called [choose] Abraham to be of faith [of belief]. Abraham believed because God choose him to be of belief that in his seed all the nations of the earth would be blessed. The seed of Abraham is the belief of Abraham.

Unto yet unto Abraham was declared the promises and unto the seed [sig] of him.

Yet Abraham died not having received the promises. Well guess what, the seed of him also died. That seed is also Son of God appointed heir of all things including the promises made to Abraham.

The promise is eternal life through the Holy Spirit which Son is the heir thereof. When did the heir become the inheritor? When will Abraham inherit the promises?

Relative to David, I think you see the same when Jesus ask; saying, 'What do ye think concerning the Christ? of whom is he son?' They say to him, 'Of David.' He saith to them, 'How then doth David in the Spirit call him lord, saying The Lord said to my lord, Sit at my right hand, till I may make thine enemies thy footstool? If then David doth call him lord, how is he his son?'

Acts 2:32-36 “This Jesus God has raised up, of which we are all witnesses. “Therefore being exalted to the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, He poured out this which you now see and hear. “For David did not ascend into the heavens, but he says himself:
‘The LORD said to my Lord,
“Sit at My right hand,
Till I make Your enemies Your footstool.” ’[fn]

“Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly that God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ.”

Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulchre is with us unto this day. Acts 2:29

Have Abraham and David to date received the promises that come through the seed of them?

Does the following have anything to do with the promises?

For this we say to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord will by no means precede those who are asleep.


BTW methinks the only baptism that will save one whether Old or New testament is the following;
But I have a baptism to be baptized with; and how am I straitened till it be accomplished!

However methinks you also have to consider this Jesus asked and stated;
But Jesus said unto them, Ye know not what ye ask: can ye drink of the cup that I drink of? and be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with?
And they said unto him, We can.
And Jesus said unto them, Ye shall indeed drink of the cup that I drink of; and with the baptism that I am baptized withal shall ye be baptized:
 
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