Tripartite Sheol?

John of Japan said:

Thank you. That's a kind thing to say.

I understand.

Yes, so between the death of Christ and His bodily resurrection, His soul was in Hades, the "place of the dead." That does not mean it was in Hell, suffering like the rich man. The contexts of the two usages of the word is different.

Yes, I believe that to be correct.

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Do you think this Greek word, 'ᾅδῃ," should ever have been translated hell? Would it not have been better to have left it as Hades?

BTW I know no Greek. Wasn't a wiz in English. Never the less.

Does the language of and the use of the dative of V 23 imply at the resurrection this is taking place rather than upon entering Hades?

percho said:

shall consume the earth with her increase, and set on fire the foundations of the mountains.

When do you believe that takes place according to the word of God?

I believe it will take place post the 1000 year reign of Christ.

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Normal volcanic activity.

37818 said:

Normal volcanic activity.

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Could be there a lot of them.

percho said:

Could be there a lot of them.

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How many volcanoes are there now world wide?

37818 said:

How many volcanoes are there now world wide?

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Have no clue and ain't gong to google

37818 said:

How many volcanoes are there now world wide?

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[Article has belief of over billions of years]

percho said:

Do you think this Greek word, 'ᾅδῃ," should ever have been translated hell? Would it not have been better to have left it as Hades?

BTW I know no Greek. Wasn't a wiz in English. Never the less.

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Assuming we are still talking about Luke 16:23, then yes, "Hell" is the correct translation. The context makes the difference; it very clearly refers to a place of punishment for the rich man, and not just the place of the dead. The Louw-Nida lexicon says in the definition of ἁδης (hades), "It is indeed possible that in addressing a GrecoRoman audience Luke would have used ᾍδῃ ["Hades" dative--JoJ] in a context implying punishment and torment, since this was a typical Greco-Roman view of the next world."

percho said:

Does the language of and the use of the dative of V 23 imply at the resurrection this is taking place rather than upon entering Hades?

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No, the dative is there because of the preposition ἐν (en), which always takes the dative and no other case. So, "in Hell...."

percho said:

I believe bosom has to do with close relationship or like relationship.

The beggar died in a relationship relative to righteousness and or to God as did father Abraham.

According to faith the beggar died. The faith spoken of here: Rom 4:16 NKJV Therefore it is of faith that it might be according to grace, so that the promise might be sure to all the seed, not only to those who are of the law, but also to those who are of the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all

The bosom of the Abraham is not a place but a condition/relationship relative to God. IMHO

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Please address post #43. For example, "died in faith" means died believing in God."