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Tennessee Temple University

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by Mexdeaf:
You misunderstand the FACT about TTU. From 1950 to approx. 1980 TTU was the TR university. From 1980 to now TTU is W-H university. Why CHANGE?

Askjo, where did you get this info?
Click here: The Attack This explains how Bible colleges are changing from TR side to W-H side.

[ May 06, 2005, 10:03 PM: Message edited by: Askjo ]
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by Mexdeaf:
Askjo said:

In order to understand the difference between the W-H colleges and TR colleges is interpret DIFFERENTLY on the Word of God. Why are they not same is because of 2 sides: NATURALISTIC method AND CONSISTENTLY CHRISTIAN method.

Askjo, Please define your terms here. I am not familiar with these terms.
Edward F. Hills wrote:

Thus there are two methods of New Testament textual criticism, the consistently Christian method and the naturalistic method. These two methods deal with the same materials, the same Greek manuscripts, and the same translations and biblical quotations, but they interpret these materials differently. The consistently Christian method interprets the materials of New Testament textual criticism in accordance with the doctrines of the divine inspiration and providential preservation of the Scriptures. The naturalistic method interprets these same materials in accordance with its own doctrine that the New Testament is nothing more than a human book.
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by Mexdeaf:
Askjo said, "YOU said the KJV and NKJV -- SAME doctrine. You are 100% WRONG! Look at KJV and NKJV for example, Acts 12:4. The KJV and the NKJV DISAGREE each other on this verse."

KJV-

4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. {Easter: Gr. Passover} {quaternions: a file of four soldiers} (KJV)

NKJV-

4 So when he had arrested him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four squads of soldiers to keep him, intending to bring him before the people after Passover. (NKJV)

My question... WHAT DOCTRINE IS TAUGHT HERE?
Passover and Easter -- are they same meaning set aside the Greek word?
 

Mexdeaf

New Member
Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Mexdeaf:
You misunderstand the FACT about TTU. From 1950 to approx. 1980 TTU was the TR university. From 1980 to now TTU is W-H university. Why CHANGE?

Askjo, where did you get this info?
Click here: The Attack This explains how Bible colleges are changing from TR side to W-H side.
</font>
You did not answer my question- Where did you get the info that TTU changed from TR to W-H around 1980?

BTW, TTU never has been a KJVO school. It was always strongly encouraged but never enforced.
 

Mexdeaf

New Member
Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Mexdeaf:
Askjo said, "YOU said the KJV and NKJV -- SAME doctrine. You are 100% WRONG! Look at KJV and NKJV for example, Acts 12:4. The KJV and the NKJV DISAGREE each other on this verse."

KJV-

4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. {Easter: Gr. Passover} {quaternions: a file of four soldiers} (KJV)

NKJV-

4 So when he had arrested him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four squads of soldiers to keep him, intending to bring him before the people after Passover. (NKJV)

My question... WHAT DOCTRINE IS TAUGHT HERE?
Passover and Easter -- are they same meaning set aside the Greek word? </font>[/QUOTE]Interesting, I just happen to have a copy of Green's 'The Interlinear Greek-English Bible' that uses the Trinitarian text. He also translates the Greek word 'pascha' as Passover.

Even the TR guys agree with it.

But my point is , again, what DOCTRINE is affected here- the virgin birth? The blood atonement of Christ? I submit to you that here we are indeed arguing about words to no profit.
 

Mexdeaf

New Member
Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Mexdeaf:
Askjo said:

In order to understand the difference between the W-H colleges and TR colleges is interpret DIFFERENTLY on the Word of God. Why are they not same is because of 2 sides: NATURALISTIC method AND CONSISTENTLY CHRISTIAN method.

Askjo, Please define your terms here. I am not familiar with these terms.
Edward F. Hills wrote:

Thus there are two methods of New Testament textual criticism, the consistently Christian method and the naturalistic method. These two methods deal with the same materials, the same Greek manuscripts, and the same translations and biblical quotations, but they interpret these materials differently. The consistently Christian method interprets the materials of New Testament textual criticism in accordance with the doctrines of the divine inspiration and providential preservation of the Scriptures. The naturalistic method interprets these same materials in accordance with its own doctrine that the New Testament is nothing more than a human book.
</font>[/QUOTE]Thank you for the definitions.

However, TTU definitely did not and does not interpret the Scriptures with the idea that 'that the New Testament is nothing more than a human book.' My oldest son is a student there now and he can vouch for that.
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by DeafPosttrib:
I was member at Deaf Missionary Baptist Church(now Sword Deaf Church) under Fred Adams (1992-1995). He is very strong stand and support KJV 100%. Funny, I remember when I took institute class with Fred Adams as my teacher. He taught about Bible, I think the class is about Manuscript, not sure. Anyway. Fred said, "Many saying KJV is inspiration. No, KJV is not inspiration, 1611 A.V. is truly inspiration." Fred's teaching does not make a sense to me. Both are inspiration to me. Understand, 1611 A.V. and KJV both are only English Bible, as different language, just only translated from Hebrews/Greek. So, people in Great Britian can read God's Word in their own language.
It is called, "the KJV inspiration." This is Ruckman's belief.
Also, I notice Fred Adams is more close KJV Onlylist. Because he stand KJV 100%, not use any versions.
Correct.
Terry Buccholz is not KJV Onlyist. He always preaching from KJV all the times. My friend told me, his pastor(Terry) learned from TTU that, the professor said, that KJV have some errors. Hard to explain to you deep. Askjo, why not you talk and discuss with Terry Buccholz on this issue, what he learned from the professor at TTU on KJV?
What errors in the KJV? Please answer.
Reggie Remple is NOT KJV Onlyism. Reggie and I did talking lot on KJV. Reggie always use KJV for teaching and preaching all the time. Reggie did told students at Harvest Deaf Bible College, require use KJV for classes and go to church.
Wisdom!
But, Reggie does not push members at deaf church for use KJV. He told the members, that many deaf have hard times to read King James Version. He allow deaf to use other Version like NKJV, NIV, etc. Reggie often said, he considers, NIV, Living Bible, etc. these are co called, "Commentary". He strong believes KJV is God's Word.
Comapare them and understand the difference between them.
Reggie knows Ruckman well. He disrespects him because of divisions, bad testimony, etc.
Agree.
Reggie's wife, she admits use NKJV all the times when read at home. She says, NKJV make her feel comfortable and able to understand God's Word.
None of my business! It is up to her.
Ruckman easily criticize against his brothers of Christ, baptist colleges, baptist churches for not use KJV or not believe KJV is inspiration, etc. Actually, Ruckman caused many baptist churches into divisions because of issue.
Ruckman is mean-spirited.
Many professors, pastors, missionaries who graduated from TTU, are not interesting in attacks, criticizes about manuscript issue and KJV issue too. They focus on God's Word, witness lost souls for Christ
What I talk about is not to attack, criticize their belief, but only their false comments.
you just bring W-H up upon TTU issue, because it is partially of KJV issue relate with Ruckman
I do NOTHING with Ruckman because I differ from Ruckman.
Mexdeaf and I both would like to know where did you get the information that TTU was used TR college from 1950's to around 1980. Then TTU introduced W-H in year between 1980's to present. Thanks
I researched and found a document. I have "Schools and the KJV." This has 2 groups in 4 categories of schools reflecting to the KJV and modern versions.
 

Mexdeaf

New Member
Another thing- W-H text for Acts 12:4 uses EXACTLY the same Greek words as the TR text. So the difference (Passover- Easter) is not due to a faulty MSS here for sure.
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by Mexdeaf:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Mexdeaf:
You misunderstand the FACT about TTU. From 1950 to approx. 1980 TTU was the TR university. From 1980 to now TTU is W-H university. Why CHANGE?

Askjo, where did you get this info?
Click here: The Attack This explains how Bible colleges are changing from TR side to W-H side.
</font>
You did not answer my question- Where did you get the info that TTU changed from TR to W-H around 1980?

BTW, TTU never has been a KJVO school. It was always strongly encouraged but never enforced.
</font>[/QUOTE]TTU uses Greek UBS (United Bible Socities). I found it in TTU catalog many years ago. Editors of UBS are Metzger, Nida, Aland, Black and Martini. Do you know who they are? Do you know their background?
 

Mexdeaf

New Member
After further study, it seems the word 'pascha' is used about 27 times in the NT and is translated everywhere else but Acts 12:4 as ' passover'.
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by Mexdeaf:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Mexdeaf:
Askjo said, "YOU said the KJV and NKJV -- SAME doctrine. You are 100% WRONG! Look at KJV and NKJV for example, Acts 12:4. The KJV and the NKJV DISAGREE each other on this verse."

KJV-

4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. {Easter: Gr. Passover} {quaternions: a file of four soldiers} (KJV)

NKJV-

4 So when he had arrested him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four squads of soldiers to keep him, intending to bring him before the people after Passover. (NKJV)

My question... WHAT DOCTRINE IS TAUGHT HERE?
Passover and Easter -- are they same meaning set aside the Greek word? </font>[/QUOTE]Interesting, I just happen to have a copy of Green's 'The Interlinear Greek-English Bible' that uses the Trinitarian text. He also translates the Greek word 'pascha' as Passover.
</font>[/QUOTE]I reject Green's materials.
 

DeafPosttrib

New Member
I consider easter was pagan. Paganism was heavily influence Israel during Greece Empire before Rome take over. There were heavy idols and Greece have lot of myth stories, idols, and of course filled of philosophy.

I am sure that King Herod II celebrated easter in that day as James was beheaded.

But, I learned 1611 A.V. was translated by 60 translators, all were Anglicans, not Protestants. Anglican is similar as Roman Catholic. I believe 60 translators were Jesuits. King James order 60 translators divided into three groups, three groups go to three different universities for Bible translation: Westiminister, Oxford, and Camabridge.

I read history of Jesuits. Great Britian were heavily conflict with religions during late 16th Century and early 17th Century. There was conflict between Protestants and Catholics. There was quarrell each others about state and religion. So, Queen Elizabeth decided to establish religion for Great Britian - "Church of England". For the purpose of unity Catholics and Protestants together.

I believe Roman Catholics were involoved pagan rituals so heavy. No doubt, Catholics quoted Easter as idols. God forbids them.

Revelation chapter 17 and 18 warn us, we do not compromise with Babylon system. Today, many religions include baptists are compromising or merge with Catholics. All are on the road toward Rome for one world religion.

Sorry I am off the track about TTU.

I believe the correct word of Acts 12:4 should be passover, not easter. Because when that time, Peter and James were thrown into the jail. King Herod II celebrated on his own holiday ON Passover day.

I heard there are much argument about passover and easter of a verse before. Nothing new to me.

Askjo, you saying you do not agree with Green. well, I use Jay P. Green book - 'Interlinear Greek-English. It is very good. There are three parallels comparing of literal translation, Greek translation, and King James Version. Mr. Green uses Textus Receptus while he wrote that book.

NKJV does not bother me at all, because there is no difference between KJV on NKJV base on the doctrines, both are same. Just some changes in NKJV for the purpose of Modern English, the way we reading today.

Also, 1611 A.V. is a classic English. Today, we reading Modern English of 21st Century. 2005 KJV is not same as 1611 A.V. There have been changed of 1611 A.V. about 13 or 14 times in near 400 years.

If suppose you travel in the time machine travel from year 2005 A.D. to 3005 A.D.(if suppose Christ not yet come to earth). You want to be curious looking at 3005 KJV Bible. You would be notice there is different comparing of 3005 KJV and 2005 KJV. Because, the world, languages, and soceity is chnaging. But, the doctrines of God's Word remain the SAME.

1500 years ago, there was no English language. God's Word was written in Hebrews and Greek. Can we read Hebrews and Greek Bible? Impossible, because we need Bible in our own language, so we can read and understand what God's Word saying.

See? There are many chnages of grammar, words, on God's Word for hundreds of years. Yet, God's Word remain the SAME doctrine, nothing change!

Late Dr. John R. Rice was never KJV Onlylist. He said there were over 15,000 manuscripts throughout all centuries.

That why there have been debate, debate, debate on manuscripts, translations, versions for long time. Nothing new to us.

More important we focus God's Word in our own language and understand what the doctrines in the Bible telling us.

I am nothing against TTU. No doubt, I believe God still blessing TTU, because of sending more graduated students into the world to preach the gospel to lost souls for Christ.

In Christ
Rev. 22:20 -Amen!
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by Mexdeaf:
Another thing- W-H text for Acts 12:4 uses EXACTLY the same Greek words as the TR text.
Coined!!!
So the difference (Passover- Easter) is not due to a faulty MSS here for sure.
Passover on Acts 12:4 is mistranslation because of 2 questions:

1. When did the passover occur?

2. When did the Easter occur?
 

Mexdeaf

New Member
Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Mexdeaf:
Another thing- W-H text for Acts 12:4 uses EXACTLY the same Greek words as the TR text.
Coined!!!
So the difference (Passover- Easter) is not due to a faulty MSS here for sure.
Passover on Acts 12:4 is mistranslation because of 2 questions:

1. When did the passover occur?

2. When did the Easter occur?
</font>[/QUOTE]HUH?? A mis-translation???

The Greek word is translated more than 20 times in the KJV New Testament as Passover- HOW CAN IT BE A MIS-TRANSLATION HERE?

I will let you have the last word here as I have better things to do than argue about two words in the Bible that have NO doctrinal significance.

May the Lord bless you tomorrow as you worship Him.
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by Mexdeaf:
HUH?? A mis-translation???

The Greek word is translated more than 20 times in the KJV New Testament as Passover- HOW CAN IT BE A MIS-TRANSLATION HERE?

I will let you have the last word here as I have better things to do than argue about two words in the Bible that have NO doctrinal significance.

May the Lord bless you tomorrow as you worship Him.
Please answer 2 questions:

1. When did the passover occur?

2. When did the Easter occur?
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by Mexdeaf:
HUH?? A mis-translation???

The Greek word is translated more than 20 times in the KJV New Testament as Passover- HOW CAN IT BE A MIS-TRANSLATION HERE?
Easter and Passover coincide reflecting to Greek word, "pascha."

If you believe it should be passover on Acts 12:4, the question for you is Was Herod involved in the passover?
 

Baptist in Richmond

Active Member
.......the left chimes in on this topic.

Askjo:

This is not the Bible Translations forum, and you know it. This is not the forum for this debate, and you know it.

If you are going to continue this, then please do what you have failed to do in the Bible Translations forum, and give us just ONE Verse that is your Scriptural justification for the complete and total rejection of all other English Translations of God's Holy Word. Until you do, Galatians 5:8 STILL applies to your foolish claim. Wow - just think: I actually use the Authorised Version of 1611 (I have more than 66 Books in my King James Bible) and I categorically dismiss KJVOnlyism. :rolleyes:

I am originally from Tennessee, and I disagreed with TTU on many topics. But the people of TTU were among the friendliest, most gracious people I have ever encountered. They are my brothers and sisters in Christ, and I love them all. And if C4K is a graduate of TTU (couldn't really tell by his comments), that demonstrates the quality of people that attend the institution.

I have never understood the stigma some associate with accreditation. Could someone explain this to me?

Warmest regards to all of you,

BiR
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by Baptist in Richmond:
.......the left chimes in on this topic.

Askjo:

This is not the Bible Translations forum, and you know it. This is not the forum for this debate, and you know it.

If you are going to continue this, then please do what you have failed to do in the Bible Translations forum, and give us just ONE Verse that is your Scriptural justification for the complete and total rejection of all other English Translations of God's Holy Word. Until you do, Galatians 5:8 STILL applies to your foolish claim. Wow - just think: I actually use the Authorised Version of 1611 (I have more than 66 Books in my King James Bible) and I categorically dismiss KJVOnlyism. :rolleyes:

I am originally from Tennessee, and I disagreed with TTU on many topics. But the people of TTU were among the friendliest, most gracious people I have ever encountered. They are my brothers and sisters in Christ, and I love them all. And if C4K is a graduate of TTU (couldn't really tell by his comments), that demonstrates the quality of people that attend the institution.

I have never understood the stigma some associate with accreditation. Could someone explain this to me?

Warmest regards to all of you,

BiR
My friend, who was graduated from TTU, told me that TTU has changed since his graduation to now because he was disappointed to learn the result. I have more friends graduated from TTU. My preacher was graduated from TTU in 1977 and only uses the KJV/TR. Complain?

Another source said that one applicant asked the register about TTU gone back to 1960's or 1970's. This register from TTU recommends him to Crown College. It is called Crown College, "TTU II." If TTU is like 1960's, I would graduate from TTU.

[ May 09, 2005, 09:00 PM: Message edited by: Askjo ]
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by DeafPosttrib:
Askjo, you saying you do not agree with Green. well, I use Jay P. Green book - 'Interlinear Greek-English. It is very good. There are three parallels comparing of literal translation, Greek translation, and King James Version. Mr. Green uses Textus Receptus while he wrote that book
Green has a few good books about textual criticism issues. I would buy them. Green has other TR Greek books, but I do not buy them because the disagreement what he wrote his Greek book is controverial.
NKJV does not bother me at all, because there is no difference between KJV on NKJV base on the doctrines, both are same. Just some changes in NKJV for the purpose of Modern English, the way we reading today.
No, the KJV and the NKJV disagree each other 2,000+ times. It is the FACT.
I am sure that King Herod II celebrated easter in that day
I believe the correct word of Acts 12:4 should be passover, not easter.
King Herod II celebrated on his own holiday ON Passover day.
Which one? :confused:

Ask yourself, Was Herod involved in the passover?

You are ALMOST right!
 
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