I consider easter was pagan. Paganism was heavily influence Israel during Greece Empire before Rome take over. There were heavy idols and Greece have lot of myth stories, idols, and of course filled of philosophy.
I am sure that King Herod II celebrated easter in that day as James was beheaded.
But, I learned 1611 A.V. was translated by 60 translators, all were Anglicans, not Protestants. Anglican is similar as Roman Catholic. I believe 60 translators were Jesuits. King James order 60 translators divided into three groups, three groups go to three different universities for Bible translation: Westiminister, Oxford, and Camabridge.
I read history of Jesuits. Great Britian were heavily conflict with religions during late 16th Century and early 17th Century. There was conflict between Protestants and Catholics. There was quarrell each others about state and religion. So, Queen Elizabeth decided to establish religion for Great Britian - "Church of England". For the purpose of unity Catholics and Protestants together.
I believe Roman Catholics were involoved pagan rituals so heavy. No doubt, Catholics quoted Easter as idols. God forbids them.
Revelation chapter 17 and 18 warn us, we do not compromise with Babylon system. Today, many religions include baptists are compromising or merge with Catholics. All are on the road toward Rome for one world religion.
Sorry I am off the track about TTU.
I believe the correct word of Acts 12:4 should be passover, not easter. Because when that time, Peter and James were thrown into the jail. King Herod II celebrated on his own holiday ON Passover day.
I heard there are much argument about passover and easter of a verse before. Nothing new to me.
Askjo, you saying you do not agree with Green. well, I use Jay P. Green book - 'Interlinear Greek-English. It is very good. There are three parallels comparing of literal translation, Greek translation, and King James Version. Mr. Green uses Textus Receptus while he wrote that book.
NKJV does not bother me at all, because there is no difference between KJV on NKJV base on the doctrines, both are same. Just some changes in NKJV for the purpose of Modern English, the way we reading today.
Also, 1611 A.V. is a classic English. Today, we reading Modern English of 21st Century. 2005 KJV is not same as 1611 A.V. There have been changed of 1611 A.V. about 13 or 14 times in near 400 years.
If suppose you travel in the time machine travel from year 2005 A.D. to 3005 A.D.(if suppose Christ not yet come to earth). You want to be curious looking at 3005 KJV Bible. You would be notice there is different comparing of 3005 KJV and 2005 KJV. Because, the world, languages, and soceity is chnaging. But, the doctrines of God's Word remain the SAME.
1500 years ago, there was no English language. God's Word was written in Hebrews and Greek. Can we read Hebrews and Greek Bible? Impossible, because we need Bible in our own language, so we can read and understand what God's Word saying.
See? There are many chnages of grammar, words, on God's Word for hundreds of years. Yet, God's Word remain the SAME doctrine, nothing change!
Late Dr. John R. Rice was never KJV Onlylist. He said there were over 15,000 manuscripts throughout all centuries.
That why there have been debate, debate, debate on manuscripts, translations, versions for long time. Nothing new to us.
More important we focus God's Word in our own language and understand what the doctrines in the Bible telling us.
I am nothing against TTU. No doubt, I believe God still blessing TTU, because of sending more graduated students into the world to preach the gospel to lost souls for Christ.
In Christ
Rev. 22:20 -Amen!