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I agree that size doesn't (or shouldn't) matter. The crowd of 5000 men, plus women and children, was not a church. A better example in my view would have been from Acts: “Then those who gladly received his word were baptized; and that day about three thousand souls were added [to them].”...

Well, ERV doesn't use the word "not", but the meaning is there. Here is the verse from ERV: And without being weakened in faith he considered his own body now as good as dead (he being about a hundred years old), and the deadness of Sarah’s womb: "Without being weakened in faith" means he was...

I simply meant that if you just say, "John Gill had no issue calling God a 'it.'" the rest of us have no idea what it was from John Gill's writings that gave you the idea that he had no issues with calling God "it". If you answered and said, "Here is a passage from Gill's works where he...

The usual meaning of "ghost" in English is a phantom or a spectre.

I have just taken a look at the verse, and it certainly seems that the Greek has a word for "not". I have looked at several English translations, and they have "not" too. For example, the NKJV has: “And not being weak in faith, he did not consider his own body, already dead (since he was...

Have you got a quote from Gill where he refers to God as "it?"

I agree that phantoms are not real. I disagree with calling the Holy Spirit a "Ghost". As you say, phantoms are not real, and in English "ghost" means a phantom. One dictiary says: "A ghost is the spirit of a dead person that someone believes they can see or feel. ...the ghost of Marie...

Yes, that's the exception. But that doesn't make "ship" a grammatically feminine noun.

Yes, phantasma is "ghost" as in the way we use it today, a phantom. When you ask "Did the KJB put spirit in those words?" do you mean, "Did the KJB put spirit where the Greek has "phantasma?" Here is one of the verses that uses "phantasma": Mt 14:26 And when the disciples saw him walking on...

That doesn't make sense. If the Greek can't give it, and the KJV New Testament is translated from the Greek, how did the translators know which was which?

But Greek isn't English. Some languages make all their nouns masculine, feminine and neuter. For example, in Latin, the word for "table" is "mensa", which is a feminine noun. In French, the word for "car" is "voiture," which is a feminine noun, That doesn't mean that when translating into...

Because as I have just mentioned in an answer to another of your posts, when the ESV or the NKJV (for example) use the word "ghost", they do so to translate the Greek word phantasma, which does mean "ghost." Phantasma is never used for the Holy Spirit.

Yet in the original Greek of the New Testament, the words used are always the same p- hagios pneuma. The Greek word for "ghost" is phantasma. It does occur in the New Testament, for example when the disciples see Jesus walking on the water.

I have just checked in the ESV. It uses the word "ghost" three times: Isa 29:4 And you will be brought low; from the earth you shall speak, and from the dust your speech will be bowed down; your voice shall come from the ground like the voice of a ghost, and from the dust...

As the Old Testament was originally in Hebrew, if you say the Hebrew needed correcting by English translations made hundreds of years later, you must believe that God gave people a faulty bible to start with, and left them with it for hundreds of years.