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Romans 4:6-7 6 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works, 7 Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered.

Not His nature; His human body.

Interestingly, Genesis 3:15 is the first prophecy of the “Seed of the woman”, referring to the Lord Jesus. The Lord never refers to Mary as “Mother”, but always as “Woman”. And that is not disrespectful at all. As an aside, I understand “Christ” to refer to His being God, and “Jesus”...

When you say Mary is God’s Mother you are claiming Mary pre-exists God, whether you intend to or not. Nestorianism separates Christ into two persons—I don’t. Christ is fully God and fully man. Mary was the Mother who bore fully man Jesus’ physical body but she did not bring forth His Spirit. He...

I looked it up. It is not Nestorianism. God existed before Mary. He did not originate from her, but His human body did, because the Lord Jesus is physically a descendant of David. She would be a “Mother of God”, only in the sense that Joseph was a “Father of God”. She conceived His physical...

Imputed righteousness is God’s truth, as with Abraham, even so with me. 1 ¶ What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found? 2 For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God. 3 For what saith the scripture...

Imputed Righteousness is False Doctrine? And yet it is taught clearly in Scripture.

Mary is Mother of the Man, Jesus. Not Mother of His divinity. I hope you recall He is fully God and fully man. She is not Mother of God, but of His humanity.

Once more, Calvin is wrong.

A pastor has to be married to his wife. That means he’s a man because women cannot marry women, no matter what culture says.

Martin, your posts 7 and 8 are excellent!

I said it all in my post #90 and it's unnecessary for me to say more.

FROM GOT QUESTIONS; In the simplest possible terms, the Biblical doctrine of penal substitution holds that Jesus’ sacrifice on the cross takes the place of the punishment we ought to suffer for our sins. As a result, God’s justice is satisfied, and those who accept Christ can be forgiven and...

He did, so we wouldn’t.

Romans 5:9 (KJV) Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him. Ephesians 2:3 (KJV) Among whom also we all had our conversation in times past in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the mind; and were by nature the...

But He did. That’s how He delivered me from God’s wrath. He took the wrath upon Himself that I deserved.

Not “just” for personal sins, but all we needed reconciliation for, absolutely including personal sins. Isaiah 53:5 (KJV) But he [was] wounded for our transgressions, [he was] bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace [was] upon him; and with his stripes we are healed. 1 Peter...

By your own words, Christ saves me from God’s wrath. It is clear this passage refers to God’s wrath against Christ-rejecting sinners. Romans 5:9 (KJV) Much more then, being now justified by His blood, we shall be saved from wrath through Him.

Yes.

“Wrath” is in the Bible 194 times. Some of them referred to man’s wrath. Many refer to God‘s wrath against sinners. If Christ did not satisfy God‘s wrath against me and my sin, then He must still have wrath toward me. Just a few instances: John 3:36 (KJV) He that believeth on the Son hath...