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@easternstar, How do you think God should communicate with us differently? Maybe I am not understanding your thinking here? I am not sure where to take our conversation? In my view of thought. (If this matters) [ In reasoning. Truth is absolute. There are the laws of logic. There is law of...

Ok. The Apostle Paul cites a Psalm how God speaks to everyone so everyone can have faith. He uses the physical. Psalm 19:4, Their line is gone out through all the earth, and their words to the end of the world. In Romans 10:17-18. The laws of the known universe. We experience and can see...

@easternstar, On the premise the words given in one's, 66 book Bible, are from God, we each who are reading or hearing them believing are hearing from God. Consider 1 John 5:9-13. Also consider Acts 17:28, For in him we live, and move, and have our being; . . .

I am of the persuasion the notion of "pure evil" is a failure to understand the fall and the "problem of evil."

The NKJV typically in the New Testament provides Majority variant text and Nestle Anland / United Bible Society variant text against the KJV TR. Where the ESV does not.

No kind of evil can exist without negating a good of some kind.

Which reading? In the body of verse 11 or note or both?

Being a human decendant of David. Luke 20:41-44, And he said unto them, How say they that Christ is David's son? And David himself saith in the book of Psalms, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, Till I make thine enemies thy footstool. David therefore calleth him Lord, how...

No. Jesus was always Son of God. Mary was caused to be the mother of Jesus the Son of Man. John 1:1-3, John 1:14. He did not cease to be the Son of God and God, John 3:13, too. Luke 1:35.

No. He was born the Man Jesus. He was always the Son and aways God. Per John 1:1-3, but through Mary became the Man, per John 1:14. And He caused it, per John 1:3.

But if either is true? Then why is the latter the better than the first choice really not really correct?

The 1611 translation note, "judgeth…: or, is a righteous judge"

That becomes a denial of the cross. And what was finished before His physical death.

John 19:34-35, But one of the soldiers with a spear pierced his side, and forthwith came there out blood and water. And he that saw it bare record, and his record is true: and he knoweth that he saith true, that ye might believe.

Any BB member may do so. It would be my understanding. OP was interested in fellow Baptist thoughs on it.

Isaiah 53:9, And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his *death; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth. * translation note, death, Hebrew deaths.

His physical death was for His bodily resurrection as evidence of what Jesus had completed. 1 Corinthians 15:17, And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins.

John 14:6, Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me. 1 Timothy 2:5-6, For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; Who gave himself a ransom for all, . . . .

@Ascetic X, Do you even comprehend that prior to His incarnation He was always both being with God and was God? John 1:1-3, In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; and without him...

Unique in John's account. John 19:28, . . . were . . . accomplished . . . . τετελεσται John 19:30, . . . It is finished . . . . τετελεσται And was before Christ's physical death.