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show me from the Bible, where and how God can be "glorified" in the damnation of lost sinners? The Bible very clearly says in places like Ezekiel 18, that God "takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked" (18:23). What this confessions does, is to make God into a monster!

Adam is the only one who had the power to override God's sovereign will Which "God" do you have in mind here? Surely not the God of the Holy Bible? Forget how "Calvinism" portrays God's Sovereignty, the Word of God, the Holy Bible is very clear that God IS always 100% Sovereign, and NO human...

Both single and double predestination, as taught by Reformed/Calvinists, are not in the Holy Bible, and therefore false doctrines. John 3:16 clearly is against any such teachings, as are many other Bible passages.

The so called "shroud of Turin" is no more than a very good HOAX. It is NOT the cloth that was used to wrap the body of Jesus Christ in. Exactly why would the Lord allow for this piece of cloth to have been preserved? True Christianity is a FAITH, that is not because of what we SEE, no need for...

There are some, even on here, who have said that there is no evidence in either the Old or New Testaments, that teach that Jesus Christ is Almighty God, in exactly the same why that the Father is Almighty God. This is a very deep subject, and cannot be done in a few words. I hope to present a...

There are three Scriptures that I want to mention here, that show the King James Version got them very wrong. Further Bible evidence against the KJVO fallacy. 1. Isaiah 48:16 "Come ye near unto me, hear ye this ; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning ; from the time that it was, there...

apologies, guilty as charged!

"instead of just making things up as you go along", you mean like you did in #30, when you added FALSE evidence of the Willoughby manuscript - 250AD, to support your contention, that "υἱὸς" is older than "θεὸς", in John 1:18? I notice that you have told me that I have missed the point, when I...

Tom, I suggest that you take some time to do some detailed research for yourself, before you post any more, either false (like the Willoughby manuscript in #30) evidence, or that which clearly you lack knowledge of. I suggest that you look at early Church History, especially at the time of the...

You mean. like in #30, when TCassidy gives FALSE evidence of the Willoughby manuscript - 250AD, in his attempt to show that the earliest reading for John 1:18, is "υἱὸς", instead of "θεὸς"? This manuscript ONLY has six lines which is John chapter 1, verses 50-51. If we are dealing with John...

TCassidy: Interesting how you only include the older versions that are spin-offs from the KJV! How about the ESV, HSCB, 1984 NIV, etc? I have not checked these as yet, but doubt if they use "begotten/beget". Versions are one thing, you have still failed to show from the LXX where "μονογενης"...

"He is the Only Begotten IN the Godhead". If by this you mean from God the Father, then Jesus Christ CANNOT be equally God as the Father is. the fact that The Father "begets" the Son, and not vice-versa, can only mean that the Father, and not the Son, is primary within the Godhead as God. The...

so, to get clear on this. why have you added the Willoughby manuscript as evidence for "υἱός"? You keep saying that I have missed the point. can you tell me where?

"μονογενής", is NOT made up of "γίνομαι" in any part of the compound word. It is "μόνος and γένος", as Thayer, whom you quote, even rightly has it. I can see no instance in the LXX, where "μονογενής" denotes any "begetting", it always has the meaning of "being the only representative of the...

can you please re-read what I have written, no Person WITHIN the GODHEAD, as GOD, not the God-Man, can ever be said to have been "begotten". The Nicene Creed is wrong to include the heretical teaching of "the eternal generation of the Son from the being of the Father", which is no where taught...

In which case, by adding Willoughby manuscript - 250AD as a witness for the reading, "υἱός", is incorrect, because this fragment consists of only 6 lines from John chapter 1, which is from verses 50-51. If we are talking about verse 18, how to you claim that it supports this reading? So...

"μονογενής", does NOT mean "only-begotten", but , "of a single kind", or "unique", which is what the Greek compound word actually means. The Greek lexicons of Liddell and Scott, Arndt and Gingrich, and the Vocabulary of the Greek Testament by Moulton and Milligan , far better Greek scholars that...

Read what YOU wrote at #27 "And you are equally wrong about the meaning of μονογενής. The Greek word is a construct, two words stuck together to form one new word. Mono = one. Genas = generated, or begotten." I know what a compound word is, which is what the Greek "μονογενής", is which is from...

Can you clarify what this textual evidence is for, if not for John 1:18?

I really don't the the point in continuing our discussions, as it is very clear that you have a "theological" response to everything that I say, regardless of whether it is right or not! I wish you well, but will not respond any longer on this.