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I don't hear that one as much these days. The people that I hear abuse Greek are ones who are not in ministry and have only learned their incorrect assumptions from their pastor who would be the one that would make the aorist mistake as well.

This is what is so scarry about non-calvi doctrine. It is admittedly man centered. "Salvation is based [on] the choice we make." Jesus mentioned only once and only in the sense of salvation proviso. The 1st person plural pronoun "we" or "us" was mentioned 10 times. I find that glaring. But...

To your first illustration... that is not a good equivalent for humans. However, it is a very close illustration of God's situation. God sacrificing his son to save those who were born into the family of sin is justice in the sense that sin's penalty is being carried out. But was it just for...

Apology accepted, you are most certainly forgiven. My apologies to you for conveying elitism. I do battle with pride.

Confused ;)

That similar to saying that you should not be found guilty for the sin you commit b/c you cannot control it. It is unjust for God to give a Law to Israel despite the fact that it was impossible for them to fulfill it. The entire system of representation is Biblical. Jesus represents us as...

Because they were born into the race of Adam who represented them as a sinner. If you think it unfair to be born into the race of Adam, then consider the other possibility, to not be born at all. Also, if we talk about fairness, then why is it faith that Jesus should take our sin on himself...

I find it hypocritical that you are allowed to critique views that you "dislike" yet when I critique a practice (not a people) who abuse Greek, you then critique me rather than my view. Notice, I said nothing about "those who don't know Greek." My critique is for those who don't know Greek...

:thumbs:, :thumbsup:, and :applause:

δυναμις dunamis often simply meaning "ability" thus translated at times "power". How many times have I heard people say, we get our word dynamite from this word. Therefore this is an explosive kind of power (Acts 1:8 for an example). Of course there are multiple fallacies going on. But...

Funny... the only one you didn't give a citation was for faith as a gift of God (try Phil. 1:29). Did you means Heb. 11:1?

Just a term I was not familiar w/. I'll answer your question, but first, let me say that your question is not only loaded but not even the issue. Jesus uses the terms interchangeably. Plus, the word "kingdom" likely is not the best translation and should rather be thought of as the...

But the thing is, I'm not saying (and I hope you don't either) that the ουτως refers to the chronology of the previous phrase, but rather simply explains what "until the fulness of the Gentiles enters" means. In this case, it explains that the fulness means "all Israel will be saved." That is...

W/ all your language training, how are you unable to follow my arguments. You clearly missed what I was saying was "likely." I was talking about the meaning of "fulness" which was LIKElY OT lingo refering to the ingathering of the nations, a major OT motif. Also, I acknowledged the vast...

What does it mean that "Jesus Christ is the Son of God"??? I ask not b/c I doubt your belief it its essential character but wonder if we understand the likelihood of what it means and refers back to in the OT. When you say that the Father, Son, and Spirit are one, are you saying that they are...

Challenge accepted! (hope you know Grk) I acknowledge that "israel" in the context by and large refers to an ethnic group of people. I would also argue that it is possible for a theological meaning to be applied to "israel" when it is prefaced by a theological term ("israel of God" or "all...

Many of us former dispos could give the same exact scenario. I told my prof in my Sermon on the Mount class how dispyism screwed me up, specifically referring to the SotM. He was not surprised.

Could you show me where the word "after" is used in the context of "all Israel"? Grammatically speaking, the phrase "fulness of the Gentiles" is equated with "all Israel will be saved" with the word "in this way" (ουτως). I see no chronological marker but simply a logical marker of explanation.

I understand that interpretation. What I'm saying is that grammatically, it is plausible and very possible that the "all Israel" refers to the "fulness of the Gentiles." That interpretation makes very good sense given the context.

What if the "all Israel will be saved" is a reference to the "fulness of the Gentiles to come in"? Grammatically, that is plausible (and likely I'd say).