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Yes, I can see how my statement conveyed error. Jesus the man was not created with a human spirit/soul. His fully human mind was the product of his physical brain intertwined with His divine Spirit, as altered to become in the likeness of our human spirit. 1) A human mind links our human...

I am beginning to fear not many on this forum actually use exhaustive concordances. Thus the lack of dismay over the needless overlap of words used to convey one meaning. Or perhaps a lack of understanding of how this sloppy effort at consistency adversely affects understanding. How many...

1) The fact that Apollinarianism is errant doctrine is not at issue. 2) Jesus was fully human in body and mind. Scripture says He was in the likeness of man. 3) Apollinarianism denied Jesus was fully human, ignoring He emptied Himself to become in the likeness of human beings. 4) But...

I believe the gates of Hades refers to something very different from the view expressed by Percho. The gates do NOT prevail over the church, the church prevails over the gates of Hades. When humans are conceived, as made sinners, we enter life within the gates of Hades, in the realm or domain...

What verse in the LXX (a Greek translation of the Old Testament) are you talking about. The LXX is NOT inspired. We have the inspired OT, in Hebrew or Aramaic, and the NT in Greek.

Christ's bodily resurrection made obvious or acknowledged that Jesus was indeed the Son of God. By His resurrection He fulfilled David's prophecy found Psalm 16:10, Jesus, the Son of God's body was not abandoned. John 3:6-7 is addressing our human spiritual rebirth as a new creation, a child...

and have fallen away, to restore them again to repentance, since they again crucify to themselves the Son of God and put Him to open shame. [Hebrews 6:6 NASB] 1) "have fallen away" translates the verb "parapiptō" (G3895) and refers to the past action of departing (descending or falling away)...

1) Yes, but they do not refer to Hades and Gehenna as "Hell." 2) Your translation, the YLT, mistranslates the verse in my opinion. The OT quoted says "Sheol" but the CT has the Greek saying death not Hades.

Great topic Martin, thanks. Yes, I agree, translations should preserve the grammatical structure of the original language. I do not like "brothers and sisters," but "siblings" solves the male bias of the old school translation choices. "Friends" or "your own" both fail the validly test...

A lack of concordance is evident in all modern English translations because they reflect to often the inconsistent word choices of the pre-computer age. Most Greek words of the NT are translated into far too many English words. "Rhema," a Greek word that appears about 70 times in the NT, is...

Lets say a word as used in the NT Greek conveys one meaning. To use jargon, it would be said to be "monosemy" or having one meaning, rather than several related meanings. When a word is used to convey multiple meanings, a lexicon lists the various meanings or usages in the NT. When a...

1) To be more concordant means to more consistently translate the same word meaning with the same English word or phrase. 2) The improvement suggested is not affected by various textual differences. The idea is to be more internally consistent in translation meanings. 3) The lack of...

Another totally off topic discussion concerns word for word versus thought for thought translations. Both types and all those in between all could be more concordant. The process does require use of the historical-grammatical method, where only the historically valid meanings of the original...

The problem of our modern English translations is that they translate the same original language word or phrase meaning into NOT one, but many different English words. And some of the same English words are used to translate different original language word or phrase meanings. For example both...

1) I did not address whatever you describe as the "original post." 2) Christ's bodily resurrection made obvious or acknowledged that Jesus was indeed the Son of God. 3) Christ's resurrection did NOT assign Him the title of "Son of God.

Note to JD731, your post conveys nothing. Are you claiming my view is Apollinarianism? It is not. Are you claiming my views are based on interpreting the NT by the doctrines of the OT? They are not.

This verse was claimed to indicate the Second Person of the Trinity "became" the Son of God when His incarnate bodily resurrection occurred. Totally bogus claim. Christ's bodily resurrection made obvious or acknowledged that Jesus was indeed the Son of God. By His resurrection He fulfilled...

Since the soul often refers to the core attributes, i.e. the soul of the matter, the most likely understanding is the human soul refers to the core attributes (personhood) of our human spirit, rather than the other way around. Thus the human attributes of Christ, were fully attributes of His...

Exactly backwards!! We are two part, not three part. Flesh and Spirit/Soul. Anytime you see a reference to our human spirit, it has our "soul" with it, and everything you see reference to our human soul, it has our human spirit with it. Our human spirit animates our physical body, when the...

The concept of Hell is a construct of confused translation. The Bible uses the term Sheol as the abode of the dead, and based on context, sometimes refers to place where the body undergoes decay, i.e. a grave, and sometimes a place where our disembodied spirits go following physical death. The...