trying2understand
New Member
So you are excluding the Gentiles? Why? Jesus didn't.Originally posted by jimraboin:
Jesus founded his Ekklesia in Israel upon truths God vested there in times past. There was no Catholicism at this time. Only believing Jews from Israel who accepted Israel's Messiah who came in fulfillment to Israel's Scriptures by the command of Israel's God.
You keep saying this, but you haven't shown it to be true. Saying it, no matter how many times, doesn't make it so.Emperor Constantine hyjacked Israel's form of Christianity and invented what we now know as Catholicism.
No, Jesus is the other way that Constatine was talking about. Don't you accept Jesus as the "Way"?Constantine admits he was given "another way" based solely upon his reasoning.
Spared? How? From what?Catholicism itself claims to be the pillar of truth and is thereby infallible. Yet no Jew from Israel who accepted Jesus as his Messiah and who also celebrated Israel's festivals was spared by Catholicism.
Faulty logic. Constantine wasn't the Church. Constantine did not head the Church. He used his powers as emporer as he chose, but that does not make him the head of the Church. You have made a huge unwarranted, unsupported and faulty leap here.They were marked heretics and suffered greatly under a Roman sword. Constantine made it law that heresy against his religion was also heresy against Rome itself. So now Catholicism has gained an earthly sword by which all men must submit to or suffer its wrath.
No. You still haven't explained how "infallibility" is related to Constantine.In simple terms Catholicism is not the pillar of truth nor is it infallible. In fact, it isn't even the Body of Christ. It is the apostate church...the harlot...
Simple enough?
You are still failing to make your point.
BTW, do you even understand the meaning of "infallible" as it relates to the Church? It would seem that would be the first necessary step to your little exercise.
Ron
[ December 03, 2002, 11:17 AM: Message edited by: trying2understand ]