• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

2 Corinthians 5:21 doesn't support penal substitution (reposted)

Status
Not open for further replies.

Arthur King

Active Member
At its core this theory of the "righteousness of God" is weak at best and has no real support. It appears that you have relied on it simply because it came from a noted scholar like Wright and have little else to support it. Wright, in this quote, fails to support this theory. In James he addresses a list of sinful behavior and in doing so in 1:20 he speaks of the "righteousness of God". The context does not lend to this theory you have posted by Wright but clearly speaks to the purity and moral rightness of God's character of which we should work to emulate. In Romans 10:13 Paul speaks of those who "did not submit to God's righteousness". Again this is not talking about covenant faithfulness but the moral character of God.

Further, in 1 Corinthians 1:30 it says "And because of Him you are in Christ Jesus, who became to us wisdom from God, righteousness and sanctification and redemption," clearly it says here that Jesus became these things which are directly attributed to God. 2 Corinthians 5:18 says that "All of this is from God" and then goes on to list what is from God; reconciliation, gave us the ministry of reconciliation.

"In Christ, God, was reconciling the world to Himself" v.19 The entire context is what God is doing for man through Christ. Hence we become the righteousness of God. It doesn't have to say the righteousness of Christ in order for imputation to be valid. God the Father and God the Son and God the Holy Spirit are one God. Context is King and the context here is the work of God through Christ and in this case God the Father made God the Son to be sin or in other words to take on our guilt so that we take on the righteousness (moral character) of God. We must be careful with scripture and not work to isolate verses so as to fit our presuppositions.

Thank you for engaging with the actual arguments presented!

I think the mistake of your view is to equate Justice (righteousness) with Goodness (morality), which are two separate things in Scripture. As Gregory of Nyssa says: “Justice, separated and taken by itself, is not goodness.” See attached chart.

Goodness refers to order according to the fulfillment of a purpose. Goodness often refers to the created order, as that which God invested His own goodness. "And God SAW that it was good." His goodness is invested in the created order.

Justice refers to that which is owed based on promises made. Covenants, contracts, laws, rights - all refer to promises made to maintain and even to restore moral order. In the Old Testament, there are two words that refer to justice, mishpat and tsedek. Mishpat refers to justice in the external world - the promises made to form a society that protects moral order. Tsedek refers to the individual - the rules they live by and their status according to the covenants of which they are a part. When someone is declared "tsedek" (righteous) that is called "justification." Justification is when a person is declared righteous, and thereby qualified to receive the benefits associated with the covenant according to which they are righteous.

The phrase “doing righteousness and justice” is a translation of "mishpat and tsedek" and occurs frequently (almost 200 times) throughout the bible, and the first time it is introduced is in Genesis 18, see verses 16-19.

Abraham will surely become a great and mighty nation, and in him all the nations of the earth will be blessed. For I have chosen him, so that he may command his children and his household after him to keep the way of the Lord by doing righteousness and justice (mishpat and tsedek), so that the Lord may bring upon Abraham what He has spoken about him.

Notice that doing both aspects of justice, mishpat and tsedek, is bracketed before and afterwards with the reference to God's promise to bless all nations through Israel in Genesis 12.

So when we talk about the "righteousness/justice of God" we are talking about His promises/covenants with humanity and specifically His covenant with Israel through Abraham, that through Abraham's offspring all nations would be blessed. The central challenge to God's righteousness/justice in the NT is "God when are you going to fulfill your promise to bless all nations through Abraham's offspring?" The fulfillment of this promise is Jesus. Jesus is how God is proven faithful to his promise to bless all nations through Abraham's offspring, and (downstream) Jesus is how we are declared just according to the covenant. God is just (faithful to His promise to bless all nations through Israel) and justifier (declaring us righteous) of the one who has faith in Jesus (regardless of whether that person is Jew or Gentile).

Romans 10:13 is talking about God's covenant faithfulness. Paul is saying that instead of submitting to God's action in Jesus Christ to fulfill His covenantal promises, these individuals tried to fulfill the covenant themselves through their own actions/rules/standards. The point is that our being declared righteous is downstream from God's actions to fulfill his promises through Jesus.
 

Attachments

  • Screen Shot 2023-08-30 at 9.38.27 AM.png
    Screen Shot 2023-08-30 at 9.38.27 AM.png
    137.4 KB · Views: 0

Arthur King

Active Member
That is crude and irreverent but it does show how with your explanation the death of Christ was unnecessary. The "justice system" you flippantly talk about is God's view of sin. There are big problems here and I would like to see a list of Baptist churches who officially hold to your theology on this. I am willing to bet that they have big problems in other areas too.

That is crude and irreverent but it does show how with your explanation the death of Christ was unnecessary.

Huh? In my illustration, Jesus jumps into the river of death.
 

Revmitchell

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
So when you deny penal substitution the question immediately comes up, "What exactly happened on the cross?." This is something you must answer even when you espouse good views of the atonement.

We were drowning in a river due to our own sin (the river represents death). Jesus jumps into the river, grabs us, and pulls us out.

Penal substitution is if we have sinned and deserve to be drowned in the river by the justice system as a future punishment. Jesus volunteers to be drowned instead of us so we never touch the river.

That is the difference. The first case is a death and resurrection narrative - as taught in the Bible. The second is a substitutionary punishment narrative - which is not biblical.

With the narrative of the op with regards to 2 corinthians 5:21 now dismantled I will address this statement with the following scripture:

And Paul went in, as was his custom, and on three Sabbath days he reasoned with them from the Scriptures, explaining and proving that it was necessary for the Christ to suffer and to rise from the dead, and saying, “This Jesus, whom I proclaim to you, is the Christ.” Acts 17:2-3

Paul's version of the work of Christ on the cross has Christ "drowned" as you have put it. We must not forget the broken body and the shed blood and the death. Your version where He jumps in and pulls us out does not have Christ suffering and dying. There is no broken body or shed blood. He is a hero in your version to be sure but it fails the true test of what actually happened. In your version sin is not as bad and is not necessary for Christ to suffer and die. The imputation is a result of the actual picture of sin and its level of moral depravity. Your version makes sin not so bad.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
It seems you're mainly looking to have a superiority complex by claiming a vague "Classic View" and then not clearly defining it.
The Bible always presents a substitute for the guilty sinner. God substitutes animal clothes for the naked sinners in the garden. God requires the Passover Lamb as a substitute for the death of a firstborn. God gives a substitute scapegoat for the sins of the people. God gives us Jesus, the Lamb of God, to substitute for our guilt, once and for all.
Nowhere in the Bible do we read of God forgiving sins without justice being required from a substitute payment for those sins.

Forgiveness is never given if justice is not met.
You seem to think the Bible tells you that forgiveness is given without any requirement of justice. That concept of forgiveness without justice is never expressed in the Bible.
Therefore, whatever "Classic View" you are pointing toward that doesn't require justice is really an emergent thought not expressed in the Bible.

I wonder why you are so adamant against a substitute for your sins when that is the clear teaching throughout the entire Bible. That is the "Classic View" which is substitutionary.

I understand that you will likely find a nit to pick, but I have made my point. I will back out of this seemingly silly thread.
Not at all. I believed the Penal Substitution Theory of Atonement for most of my life. That was the position I held throughout seminary and most of my preaching ministry.

It is not about superiority but about Scripture.

Classic Christianity has been defined repeatedly and clearly time and time again. So has the Penal Substitution Theory.

You did not define Penal Substitution Theory while you presented it as the superior position. And I did not expect you to as it has already been defined.

In summary, Classic Christianity views Christ as suffering under the powers of Satan (the "snake" striking His heel) but having victory over evil (Christ crushing His head) thereby freeing mankind from the bondage of sin and death.

Penal Substitution Theory views Christ as suffering under God's wrath (exact opposite from Classic Christianity) because God is unable to forgive sin (God must punish sin in order to acquit sinners).

There is more to both views, but I trust you are literate and can click on the appropriate threads.
 

Revmitchell

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Thank you for engaging with the actual arguments presented!

I think the mistake of your view is to equate Justice (righteousness) with Goodness (morality), which are two separate things in Scripture. As Gregory of Nyssa says: “Justice, separated and taken by itself, is not goodness.” See attached chart.

Righteousness is being in right standing. When we bear the righteousness of God we have been put in right standing with God. We have the moral character of God positionally until we are fully redeemed then we will bear the it in full. Using the word justice as if it is interchangeable with righteousness is to misuse the word. The same word in the original language is used for both that context sets up in which way we do. Further, you took only a portion of my post and ignored the rest. Brings into question why?
 

Arthur King

Active Member
Righteousness is being in right standing. When we bear the righteousness of God we have been put in right standing with God. We have the moral character of God positionally until we are fully redeemed then we will bear the it in full. Using the word justice as if it is interchangeable with righteousness is to misuse the word. The same word in the original language is used for both that context sets up in which way we do. Further, you took only a portion of my post and ignored the rest. Brings into question why?

Using the word justice as if it is interchangeable with righteousness is to misuse the word.

No, justice and righteousness are the exact same word in the New Testament. It would be best if we switched the word "righteousness" to "justice" throughout the whole New Testament, rather than taking our preconceived theological or philosophical commitments and projecting them on to the text in how we translate it.

"Righteousness and justice" in the Old Testament refers to the two words "mishpat and tsedek." This is an area where English translations have obscured the original languages, unfortunately.

Sorry, which part of your post did I miss that you are interested in my response to?
 

Arthur King

Active Member
With the narrative of the op with regards to 2 corinthians 5:21 now dismantled I will address this statement with the following scripture:

And Paul went in, as was his custom, and on three Sabbath days he reasoned with them from the Scriptures, explaining and proving that it was necessary for the Christ to suffer and to rise from the dead, and saying, “This Jesus, whom I proclaim to you, is the Christ.” Acts 17:2-3

Paul's version of the work of Christ on the cross has Christ "drowned" as you have put it. We must not forget the broken body and the shed blood and the death. Your version where He jumps in and pulls us out does not have Christ suffering and dying. There is no broken body or shed blood. He is a hero in your version to be sure but it fails the true test of what actually happened. In your version sin is not as bad and is not necessary for Christ to suffer and die. The imputation is a result of the actual picture of sin and its level of moral depravity. Your version makes sin not so bad.

Jesus jumping into the river of death in my illustration represents his suffering and dying.

I am simply following the narrative set forth by Ephesians 2:1-10.

We are already dead in trespasses and sins. We are already children of wrath, exiled from Paradise and the Presence of God (Genesis 1) and living in a creation that God subjected to futility (Romans 8), consigned to physical death in the future. God has already been revealing from heaven his wrath against all ungodliness AND unrighteousness (two separate concepts by the way).

But Jesus has died with us, so what we can rise in him.

The problem is we are dead in sin. The solution is resurrection in Christ.

I am not ignoring the necessity of Jesus' death or the wrath of God.

Your view of sin is the one that is not as serious, as you present sin as only a problem because God punishes it. God certainly punishes sin, but tell me, if God never lifted a finger to punish sin, would sin itself still plunge sinners into destruction and misery? I say yes.
 

Revmitchell

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Using the word justice as if it is interchangeable with righteousness is to misuse the word.

No, justice and righteousness are the exact same word in the New Testament. It would be best if we switched the word "righteousness" to "justice" throughout the whole New Testament,

There are a lot of words like this in scripture. It doesn't mean they are used the exact same way every time.

rather than taking our preconceived theological or philosophical commitments and projecting them on to the text in how we translate it.

Again it might help you to have some discipleship in studying the Bible.

"Righteousness and justice" in the Old Testament refers to the two words "mishpat and tsedek." This is an area where English translations have obscured the original languages, unfortunately.

No, it is where folks like yourself have misused the translations and apply assumptions.

Sorry, which part of your post did I miss that you are interested in my response to?

All of it.
 

DaveXR650

Well-Known Member
Your view of sin is the one that is not as serious, as you present sin as only a problem because God punishes it. God certainly punishes sin, but tell me, if God never lifted a finger to punish sin, would sin itself still plunge sinners into destruction and misery? I say yes.
How can you minimize something you say God disapproves of. What natural consequence is more important than God's disapproval? What is worse than disobeying God? What natural consequence of sin is not ultimately the result of God's created will and order?
But Jesus has died with us, so what we can rise in him.

The problem is we are dead in sin. The solution is resurrection in Christ.

I am not ignoring the necessity of Jesus' death or the wrath of God.
I don't have any problem with Jesus dying with us if you mean in the sense of the necessity of our union and identification with Christ. You are still skirting around the issue that Christ's death had something to do directly for us in regards to our sinful condition. Like you say above you believe that the purpose of Christ's death was so that we can rise with him. I say, his death and shed blood had a specific purpose. I'm not a theologian and don't represent any group or school of thought so I am not a stickler on how this is put - but his death did something for us and it had to do with our sin. And it had to do with more than our general sinful state as a member of the human race - it had something to do with our individual committed sins.

The idea above that "The problem is we are dead in sin. The solution is resurrection in Christ", is not a sufficient explanation of the atonement. Sorry. Am I missing something or is there some reason you refuse to have Christ's atonement be directly involved in the resolution of our individual sin before God? Do you believe in any concept of you, as an individual, standing before God as a sinner, guilty of sins you have committed yourself; or is this all to you a matter of our basic mortality and hard life experience and general condition of mankind in general.
 

Revmitchell

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Jesus jumping into the river of death in my illustration represents his suffering and dying.

I am simply following the narrative set forth by Ephesians 2:1-10.

We are already dead in trespasses and sins. We are already children of wrath, exiled from Paradise and the Presence of God (Genesis 1) and living in a creation that God subjected to futility (Romans 8), consigned to physical death in the future. God has already been revealing from heaven his wrath against all ungodliness AND unrighteousness (two separate concepts by the way).

Again here you minimize the penalty for sin again. We are already consigned to death. But that death is not simply a physical death it is a spiritual death where we are eternally separated from God.

But Jesus has died with us, so what we can rise in him.

Jesus did not die with us He died for us and it is after we turn in faith to Him that we then have our old man die with Him. Romans 6.

The problem is we are dead in sin. The solution is resurrection in Christ.

The solution is the broken body and shed blood.

I am not ignoring the necessity of Jesus' death or the wrath of God.

that may be true but in your posts in this thread you have been. Even in this post I am quoting.

Your view of sin is the one that is not as serious, as you present sin as only a problem because God punishes it. God certainly punishes sin, but tell me, if God never lifted a finger to punish sin, would sin itself still plunge sinners into destruction and misery? I say yes.

I never said it is only a problem because God punishes it. I have said He punishes it because it is a problem. Not sure where you got that confused.
 

Arthur King

Active Member
How can you minimize something you say God disapproves of. What natural consequence is more important than God's disapproval? What is worse than disobeying God? What natural consequence of sin is not ultimately the result of God's created will and order?

I don't have any problem with Jesus dying with us if you mean in the sense of the necessity of our union and identification with Christ. You are still skirting around the issue that Christ's death had something to do directly for us in regards to our sinful condition. Like you say above you believe that the purpose of Christ's death was so that we can rise with him. I say, his death and shed blood had a specific purpose. I'm not a theologian and don't represent any group or school of thought so I am not a stickler on how this is put - but his death did something for us and it had to do with our sin. And it had to do with more than our general sinful state as a member of the human race - it had something to do with our individual committed sins.

The idea above that "The problem is we are dead in sin. The solution is resurrection in Christ", is not a sufficient explanation of the atonement. Sorry. Am I missing something or is there some reason you refuse to have Christ's atonement be directly involved in the resolution of our individual sin before God? Do you believe in any concept of you, as an individual, standing before God as a sinner, guilty of sins you have committed yourself; or is this all to you a matter of our basic mortality and hard life experience and general condition of mankind in general.

How can you minimize something you say God disapproves of.

I am not sure how I am minimizing. I am adding another category to sin's destructive consequences.

Me:
1) sin is intrinsically destructive in and of itself, independent from and prior to the wrath of God
2) God also punishes sin

Them (most PSA advocates I talk to):
1) sin only results in destructive consequences because God punishes it.

What natural consequence is more important than God's disapproval?

Not a matter of "more important." Sin's intrinsic destruction happens prior to God's wrath, because the destruction and disorder takes place in the act of sin itself.

What is worse than disobeying God?

Nothing. I am adding further description to why sin is so bad, in addition to God punishing disobedience. We are designed to love God and enjoy Him forever. When we rebel against Him, we rebel against our own design and our own joy in the act itself, necessarily doing disorder, destruction and dissatisfaction in the act of sin itself.

What natural consequence of sin is not ultimately the result of God's created will and order?

Sin is an act of creature, not of Creator. It is humans that commit the act of disorder, destruction, and dissatisfaction that inherent to sin. Not God.

You are still skirting around the issue that Christ's death had something to do directly for us in regards to our sinful condition.

I don't understand this charge at all.

I say, his death and shed blood had a specific purpose. I'm not a theologian and don't represent any group or school of thought so I am not a stickler on how this is put - but his death did something for us and it had to do with our sin. And it had to do with more than our general sinful state as a member of the human race - it had something to do with our individual committed sins.

I disagree with nothing here. But you also haven't presented penal substitution.

Here is a thorough explanation of the atonement and justice relationship. This might be helpful:

Due to God’s gracious covenant, justice requires restoration for damage suffered by innocent parties. Humans have totally and severely damaged themselves by their own sin (God is not damaged by our sin. In the case of sin against God, sin is an offense that damages the offender). God desires to enact restoration for this destruction, but humans are not innocent, they are guilty. There is none righteous, not one. So the question is: How can a just God, a covenant God, enact restoration for guilty humanity’s self-destruction? Answer: God becomes a human in the person of Jesus Christ, lives completely innocently (or righteously) and therefore merits the covenantal blessings by which humanity’s destruction will be restored. Jesus then voluntarily endures all of humanity’s sinful destruction against himself by suffering crucifixion at the hands of all humans on the cross. He therefore merits restoration for all of humanity’s sinful destruction, for he alone has suffered sin’s destruction as an innocent party. This restoration manifests in His resurrection, when “God raised our Great Shepherd up from the dead through the blood of the eternal covenant (Heb 13:20).” So the correct response to the question “Why did Jesus die?” is: in order for all suffering and death to be repaired by God in accordance with his justice, all suffering and death had to be endured by a perfectly innocent and righteous person (for only innocent persons have the right of restoration for wrongs suffered) and only Jesus qualifies as that perfectly righteous person.

Divine justice is therefore satisfied in the resurrection as the reversal and reparation of all the sin that Jesus unjustly suffered on the cross. Jesus dies under the unjust judgment of humans, and is raised by the just judgment of God. Jesus’ reward, or inheritance, of the covenantal blessings applies to the rest of humanity if by the power of the Holy Spirit we participate in His death (through remorse) and participate in His resurrection (through repentance). So the gospel is not that “God substituted Himself to satisfy His own wrath,” which is not Biblical terminology. Again, the gospel is exactly what Paul says it is: “the good news that God has fulfilled His promises to our children in that He raised Jesus up from the dead” (Acts 13:32). And again, the gospel is that God’s covenantal promises to restore the world from Adam’s curse (the subject of the Old Testament) are fulfilled in Jesus’ resurrection (the subject of the New Testament).

But how exactly do the merits of Jesus’ death and resurrection apply to us? We participate in Jesus’ death and resurrection through remorse and repentance for our sin. An offender feels remorse when he puts himself in his victim’s shoes and, through empathy, mentally and emotionally suffers his own offense against himself as his victim suffered it. This type of remorse is required for an offender to apologize to his victim. Notice also that this remorse is a fulfillment of the priority of retribution, that is, a suffering of one’s own sin against oneself, but internally in the soul rather than merely externally enduring physical punishment. Remorse is what the cross should cause in us. When we look to the cross, we the offenders should put ourselves in the shoes of our victim, Jesus, and suffer (in an internal sense) our crucifixion of him as crucifixion of our sinful selves. We are then “crucified with Christ” (Gal 2:20) and have “died with Christ” (Rom 6:8) and our sin is “condemned in the flesh” (Rom 8:3). When we die in Christ in this way, we are also able to rise to new life in Christ, for His unjust death has merited for us the reversal of death in His resurrection.

This restoration based logic emphasizes important things penal substitution overlooks or de-emphasizes, such as the self-destructive nature of sin, the death of Jesus at the hands of sinners, the fulfillment of God’s covenantal promises in Jesus’ resurrection, and the necessity of our participation in Jesus’ death and resurrection by undergoing a death and resurrection ourselves.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Penal Substitution Theory minimizes sin with the conclusion it can be resolved (forgiven) through punishment.

I sin. God punished my sin laid on Christ. I am forgiven. That is about as low a view of sin that exists today within Christianity.
 

Arthur King

Active Member
Again here you minimize the penalty for sin again. We are already consigned to death. But that death is not simply a physical death it is a spiritual death where we are eternally separated from God.



Jesus did not die with us He died for us and it is after we turn in faith to Him that we then have our old man die with Him. Romans 6.



The solution is the broken body and shed blood.



that may be true but in your posts in this thread you have been. Even in this post I am quoting.



I never said it is only a problem because God punishes it. I have said He punishes it because it is a problem. Not sure where you got that confused.

You say "Jesus did not die with us He died for us and it is after we turn in faith to Him that we then have our old man die with Him. Romans 6."

If we die with him, then he dies with us. Either way, that is not substitution.

A substitute is someone who does something instead of you, in your place so you do not have to do that thing.

Jesus does not die so we won't have to. Jesus dies so we can die with him and in him. See attached on all the verses that substitution does not fit with.
 

Attachments

  • That's not substitution.png
    That's not substitution.png
    461.8 KB · Views: 0

Revmitchell

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You say "Jesus did not die with us He died for us and it is after we turn in faith to Him that we then have our old man die with Him. Romans 6."

If we die with him, then he dies with us. Either way, that is not substitution.

A substitute is someone who does something instead of you, in your place so you do not have to do that thing.

Jesus does not die so we won't have to. Jesus dies so we can die with him and in him. See attached on all the verses that substitution does not fit with.

I am going to suggest that you reread what I posted and go and actually read Romans 6. You then need to be very careful of how you respond so that you do not make this same embarrassing mistake once again.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
.Mark 10:45, ". . . For even the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give His soul a ransom in exchange for many. . . . "
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
.Mark 10:45, ". . . For even the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give His soul a ransom in exchange for many. . . . "
Nobody is denying this passage. It is a foundational truth of Classic Christianity as well as Penal Substitution Theory.
 

taisto

Well-Known Member
Not at all. I believed the Penal Substitution Theory of Atonement for most of my life. That was the position I held throughout seminary and most of my preaching ministry.

It is not about superiority but about Scripture.

Classic Christianity has been defined repeatedly and clearly time and time again. So has the Penal Substitution Theory.

You did not define Penal Substitution Theory while you presented it as the superior position. And I did not expect you to as it has already been defined.

In summary, Classic Christianity views Christ as suffering under the powers of Satan (the "snake" striking His heel) but having victory over evil (Christ crushing His head) thereby freeing mankind from the bondage of sin and death.

Penal Substitution Theory views Christ as suffering under God's wrath (exact opposite from Classic Christianity) because God is unable to forgive sin (God must punish sin in order to acquit sinners).

There is more to both views, but I trust you are literate and can click on the appropriate threads.
Your statement seems to glorify Satan and give him greater status than the Bible gives him.
Go to Revelation 12 and see that Satan didn't do anything. Go to the Gospels and see that Jesus did the will of God the Father and accomplished what the Triune God set out to do from the beginning. Why would anyone give Satan more props than he should have? Sir, your view is not a classic view. It is a new view that is not supported by the scriptures.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Your statement seems to glorify Satan and give him greater status than the Bible gives him.
Go to Revelation 12 and see that Satan didn't do anything. Go to the Gospels and see that Jesus did the will of God the Father and accomplished what the Triune God set out to do from the beginning. Why would anyone give Satan more props than he should have? Sir, your view is not a classic view. It is a new view that is not supported by the scriptures.
Not at all. Scripture tells us that that the Serpent will crush the Seed of the woman on the heal and the Seed of the woman will crush the Serpent's head (Genesis 3:15).

I believe that the Serpent refers to Satan and the woman's Seed refers to Christ.

Christ submitted Himself to suffer. Those men who crucified Christ were not more powerful than Christ. The Serpent "crushing Him at the heel" does not make the Serpent more powerful either.

Your conclusion is not logical. The reason is twofold - first, Christ lay down His own life. Second, Christ was victorious (crushed the Serpent's head).
 

Arthur King

Active Member
I am going to suggest that you reread what I posted and go and actually read Romans 6. You then need to be very careful of how you respond so that you do not make this same embarrassing mistake once again.

Romans 6: Or do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus have been baptized into His death? Therefore we have been buried with Him through baptism into death, so that as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, so we too might walk in newness of life. For if we have become united with Him in the likeness of His death, certainly we shall also be in the likeness of His resurrection, knowing this, that our old self was crucified with Him, in order that our body of sin might be done away with, so that we would no longer be slaves to sin; for he who has died is freed from sin.


This is one of my favorite passages. I don't see substitution anywhere in here. In fact, substitution is a completely misleading word to describe what is going on here. I see being crucified with Christ (or co-crucified as Galatians 2 would have it).

A substitute does not say "you will drink the cup I drink and be baptized with my baptism." A substitute does not say "follow me."
 

Arthur King

Active Member
.Mark 10:45, ". . . For even the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give His soul a ransom in exchange for many. . . . "

Love it. Payment (ransom) is not punishment though. Jesus pays our debt of obedience. He is not punished in our place.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top