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A better English Bible.

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37818

Well-Known Member
That did not address the problem of who is to be the judge of what is correct?
The word of God is self authenticating. As it is, everyone is doing the deciding which reading one is going to believe is God's word. One person picks the ESV another NIV, some whole church decided the KJV to be solely the word of God. Now Jesus told unbelievers, in John 8:47, He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of God. I have seen an arrogant brother cite that verse to suggest a brother wasn't believing God's word over a disagreement.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
. . . as there is no standard by which we are to judge.
God's actual given word is the standard.
Remember what Jesus told the unbelievers, John 8:47, He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of God.
The Apostle John explained in 1 John 5:9-13, . . . He that believeth on the Son of God hath the witness in himself: . . .
And in 1 John 2:27, But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
God's actual given word is the standard.
Remember what Jesus told the unbelievers, John 8:47, He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of God.
The Apostle John explained in 1 John 5:9-13, . . . He that believeth on the Son of God hath the witness in himself: . . .
And in 1 John 2:27, But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.

So since we both agree that we have the word of God where is the problem that requires a better English translation.

When translating the OT or the NT we have to consider how best to convey the meaning in English or the language it is being translated into.

For example the word "of G4012" found in John has been translated as
of G4012
for G4012
about G4012
around G4012
on behalf G4012
concerning G4012
on their behalf G4012

The choice of word used depends upon which translation one is using. NKJ, NASB, TRi, ABP.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
So since we both agree that we have the word of God where is the problem that requires a better English translation.

When translating the OT or the NT we have to consider how best to convey the meaning in English or the language it is being translated into.

For example the word "of G4012" found in John has been translated as
of G4012
for G4012
about G4012
around G4012
on behalf G4012
concerning G4012
on their behalf G4012

The choice of word used depends upon which translation one is using. NKJ, NASB, TRi, ABP.
It is case by case where there is disagreement. There are majority and minority interpretations. Even the majority view point can be mistaken. Yet it will be what will be chosen. So a case by case needs to be discussed.

Do you have a case of some importance using G4012?..
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
It is case by case where there is disagreement. There are majority and minority interpretations. Even the majority view point can be mistaken. Yet it will be what will be chosen. So a case by case needs to be discussed.

Do you have a case of some importance using G4012?..

As I said before we have to consider how best to convey the meaning in English or the language it is being translated into.
My point was that translation is not a monolithic endeavor.
Joh 1:7 to testify G3140 about G4012 the Light G5457 NASB
Joh 1:7 bear witness G3140 of G4012 the Light G5457 NKJV

Joh 7:17 "If G1437 anyone G5100 is willing G2309 to do G4160 His will G2307, he will know G1097 of the teaching G1322 NASB
Joh_7:17 "If G1437 anyone G5100 wants G2309 to do G4160 His G846 will G2307, he shall know G1097 concerning G4012 the doctrine G1322 NKJV

While both examples contain differences in the text they both convey the meaning of the Greek text.

This why I will refer to various translations when I am doing a study of a passage.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
My point was that translation is not a monolithic endeavor.
Joh 1:7 to testify G3140 about G4012 the Light G5457 NASB
Joh 1:7 bear witness G3140 of G4012 the Light G5457 NKJV
In both cases that one who is that Light in verse 9 is the true Light. See Hebrews 1:3. Compare John 17:3.
 

Conan

Well-Known Member
By your logic one could trust the JW or Mormon bible or even the Passion bible as there is no standard by which we are to judge.
How in the world did you get that? You learn about Bible Translating. You learn about textual criticism. Then you are equipped to decide. You know, like you did in post #47. Good job.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
How in the world did you get that? You learn about Bible Translating. You learn about textual criticism. Then you are equipped to decide. You know, like you did in post #47. Good job.

Why would you think a person needs to understand Bible translating or textual criticism before they can know what a good translation is? Would that not be something that a person might become interested in after they have been a Christian for a while. I know I did not have it as a priority when I was young.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
I know, and so would people that read either translation.
Two different issues. Sometimes how a common Greek word is translated. May or may not change how a text is understood. Or an issue of meaning do to a textual variant.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
The Variants are on each page in the print edition. I recommend the Hard back. But the paperback is priced right. The readers edition does not have the footnotes.
As it turns out some of the smaller percentages are simply not given.

Matthew 3:11, Spirit. | Spirit and fire.
Spirit. 80%, Spirit and fire. 20%

Matthew 3:6, Jordan | river Jordan
Jordan 85%, river Jordan 15%
 

37818

Well-Known Member
* A majority text reading denied.
1 Peter 2:2
grow | grow into salvation ANT CT PCK
grow 35%, grow into salvation 65%
 

37818

Well-Known Member
It also needs to be noted, The Text Critical English New Testament reports some readings the NKJV, 2018 Byzantine and Pickering's Family 35 GNT missed.

Luke 1:35
born | born of yoʋ SCR
 
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Silverhair

Well-Known Member
Two different issues. Sometimes how a common Greek word is translated. May or may not change how a text is understood. Or an issue of meaning do to a textual variant.

So the question is still who do you think should be the one to decide what is the correct text?

Secondly do you think either the NASB or NKJV do not provide biblical truths?

You keep arguing for this correct version as if what we have now just causes confusion but what is your remedy to what you see as a problem?
 

37818

Well-Known Member
So the question is still who do you think should be the one to decide what is the correct text?
The Holy Spirit. All genuine believers know Him.
So do you have an actual text issue we can use?
Otherwise we are talking about unspecified "smoke."
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
The Holy Spirit. All genuine believers know Him.
So do you have an actual text issue we can use?
Otherwise we are talking about unspecified "smoke."

That is the thing 37 I do not have issues with the text. I understand that the Greek can be translated by various English words so I use several bible versions when I am doing a study. I find that the various readings can actually provide more clarity to a text. I have several bible versions setup in my bible compare function not including my interlinears.

Take for example John 3:17. Some of the translations use "to condemn the world" others use "to judge the world" . Which do you think is the better translation and why?
 

37818

Well-Known Member
This word ειδους
meaning "an appearance" occurs only twice in the whole New Testament.
2 Corinthians 5:7.
1 Thessalonians 5:22.
2 Corinthians 5:7, For we walk by faith, not by appearance.
1 Thessalonians 5:22, Avoid every appearance of evil.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
Take for example John 3:17. Some of the translations use "to condemn the world" others use "to judge the world" . Which do you think is the better translation and why?
John 3:17 is not do to a textual variant. But a change in the English language. Some readers prefer the older word usage.
 
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