Originally posted by michelle:
Peace and love to you all in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour!
Phillip,
To be very honest with you, I would not trust the NKJV, and the reason I say this is because I see how much apostacy there is in the churches today, and with the plethora of conflicting versions out there, and I believe that God has already provided for us a perfect and accurate translation for the English speaking people to which we do not need any other. I do not like the fact that they give credence to the critical text, which sows doubt to the reader, and gives the reader the impression the critical text is reliable and acceptable. This is deceptive. They might has well have used the critical text for their tranlsation. They have also changed the thee's, thou's and ye's to a blank "you". The thee's, thou's, etc. were not common even in the days of the KJV translators, but they chose to use them. Why? Because they give the best and most accurate rendering of the language and clarifies to whom is being spoken to. Now it is a blanket "you", with no indication of the plural or singular aspect of to whom is being addressed.
I am sure there are more problems regarding it, but these are only the few things that I am aware of, and I would not personally touch it, nor recommend it.
love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
I have to be honest with you. I did not see this post, I think it slipped in between one of my posts and I completely missed it. For continuing to ask you about the NKJV, I appologize. Now let me get back to the subject and hand and discuss your answer.
Where in the world do you come up with the idea that the words of the ancient languages are better translated into "thee", "thou" and other words such as this. If this is the case, then it is the case for two completely different ancient languages: Hebrew AND Greek. This is by far the most INTERESTING explanation I have ever seen for not using the NKJV.
You yourself said that you would have no problem with a legitimate translation of the TR, but now you are backing away from that position.
Let's talk about footnotes. You may not like the footnotes, but they are simply making a statement that certain manuscripts either contain or do not contain something. Why in the world would you have a problem with that? Who made you the scholar who knows beyond doubt what manuscripts are the exactly like the original autographs.
See, this all boils down to you are using the KJV as the "standard" to test everything by. This is an English language translation. What makes you think that God would choose English to be the language that the Bible is preserved word-for-word.
You still haven't given a satisfactory answer as to the differences in the KJV since 1611? I repeat for the fourth time what you said: 2% rat poison is indeed poison and if your position of "word-for-word" accuracy of the KJV holds then ALL of those previous versions have GOT to be wrong. If God would allow typographical errors, why would he not allow translational errors, or manuscript errors.
Michelle, even the KJV translators did not rely on the TR as their only source of material. How in the world do we see the exact same verses and chapters appear from the Geneva? How do we explain the usage of the Vulgate as a final resort on early KJV translation? How do you explain that more than one manuscript was used to translate the Revelation of Jesus Christ of which all were different? Did they flip a coin and God made it roll to the right position?
Yes, the scholars of the KJV may have been very bright indeed, but they also used scholarship and textual criticism to make decisions to fill in the blanks.
Now, I will ask you again, WHY did the KJV HAVE to be translated if other English Bibles that were word-for-word perfect existed. You see, this IS relevant because I am asking you about the "origin" of the Bible that you claim is word-for-word perfect, and I am questioning that particular belief. By ignoring its origination you are avoiding answering relevant questions.