AresMan said:
How effectual, measurable, or tangible, or of what import is this work of God? Does it actually accomplish what God [Almighty] intends to do?
Hmm.. let me think... Yeah! God's word will accomplish that which He sends it out to do. No Non-Cal or Arminian believes otherwise. Most Calvinists just can't seem to grasp that concept.
Is the righteous salvific judgment in accordance with the Gospel caused by the illumination of the Spirit not part of the salvation that is all of God?
What??
What is 'righteous "salvic" judgment'?
God said in Rom 1 that that He reveals Himself (Rom 1:19) to man through nature, chapter 2 through the conscience, chapter 3 through His word.
God reveals Himself and His wrath against ungodliness. It states they even 'knew' God but rejected Him and the truths He revealed about Himself and His judgment to come.
If not, what is an unregenerate lost person capable of doing righteously toward God pleasing to Him that one who is regenerated can do?
They are capable of believing. If a man is responsible then by definition of the very word itself he must also be able. To pretend otherwise removes any force to the words meaning.
John 6 shows that God comes to man and teaches him the Gospel, and that man believes the Gospel,
Yes, but it does not state all men that God reveals this to will believe, the verse you speak of it 'ripped' from it's context for your pretext.
Jhn 6:44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.
Jhn 6:45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.
No one of or by himself will seek after God and that is why God seeks after men.
Thus no one will come to Christ unless God is the one bringing them. vs 43 is merely restating it for emphasis. All are taught of God therefore no man got this of his own accord, intellect, or reasoning. The only way man will come is if God reveals truth to him (has heard), and believes it (hath learned from the Father). One can only learn what one is willing to receive. Thus only those who are drawn and believe come to Christ.
Now is salvation in John 6 that Jesus is speaking for those who will not believe? Scripture declares it is -
Jhn 6:32 Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Moses gave you not that bread from heaven; but my Father giveth you the true bread from heaven.
Jhn 6:33 For the bread of God is he which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life unto the world.
Who were the "you" Jesus was talking to?
Jhn 6:36 But I said unto you, That ye also have seen me, and believe not.
Jesus (salvation) was given to them all, both those who would believe and those who would not. Not all will receive it but it was given and offered to them all.
but it also explains that the same people who believe the Gospel also are drawn by the Father, given to the Son, and none of them will be lost.
Yet, it does not negate the fact that God is drawing all men.
Their faith in the Gospel is all a part of the effectual work of God unto salvation that is all of God.
No question. Though it is done the same to every person, it's work is for the purpose of bring those of faith to salvation and those who reject it to their own damnation. Does exactly what it is intended to do.
Scripture is replete with commands with God; but is it replete with clarity expressing your assumed inference that coupled with these commands are the independent or complementary ability of man apart from effectual work of God the righteous ability or will to heed the commands?
An 'inference' is that it may be implied but not necessarily ever stated. Sorry what I gave is not 'inferences' but factual states, pleas, and commands. It is your 'presumption' that 'assumes' man is not able to believe unless otherwise regenerate. Not that scripture actually makes this statement but is a 'logical' conclusion that is drawn from you understanding of being spiritually 'dead'.
Those who believe are drawn by the Father, taught by the Father, given to the Son, and none are lost. The belief in the Gospel itself boils down ultimately to the effectual work of God.
Again, no question.
The Bible on one hand expresses the human perspective of the command to believe the Gospel. The Bible also expresses God's perspective on how this is actually accomplished. God's perspective in John 6, Romans 8, Ephesians 2, and others expresses WHY there are those that actually heed the Gospel call.
Yep, God moved via the Holy Spirit working out His appointed ministry to the world so that men might believe. Some will reject it also as scripture 'clearly' states.
The two are not mutually exclusive; and the fact that there is a human perspective expressed in God's Word in no way mutually excludes, degrades, eliminates, the clear expression of God's effectual work in bringing about man's human response to the preaching of God's Word.
No one but Calvinists assumes it does.