Yes, this seems to me to be the crux of the issue. Is your definition of "scriptural baptism" the same as mine or of a church down the road?However, my definition of 'scriptural baptism' is that the baptism is done by immersion in the Name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit and that the one baptized should have openly and credibly professed repentance of sins and faith in Jesus Christ as Lord and Saviour.
What if the church down the road only considers baptism to be scriptural if it meets certain criteria? And those criteria are not the same as yours, as stated above?
I have a friend who pastors and IFB church what examines the baptism of every potential member to determine if there was a:
Scriptural Subject, IE, a person already born again and confessing Christ as Lord and Savior. And that the baptism was performed using a:
Scriptural Method. Complete immersion in water as a testimony of the work of Christ in the life of the person being baptized, immersed one time backward in the Name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit.
Scriptural Purpose. To show forth a certain body of truth which is not only the property of the believer, but the property also of the body into which the believer is baptized. To picture the gospel; the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus Christ, and signifies that the one baptized is dead to the old life of sin and risen to a new life in Christ Jesus.
Scriptural Administrator. A bible believing Baptist church of like faith and order.
So, is it possible there may be others who have a different opinion regarding the definition of "scriptural baptism?" And is it possible their opinion is as valid as ours?