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Another Catholic question (sorry guys!)

WalkswithJesus

New Member
In spite of what you call his weaknesses he has done much research, and the research that he has done he has given credit for, often using first hand sources. This is the typical thinking of Catholics (I had hoped not you), that when you don't like the message you shoot the messenger.
Well th quotes you provided do not address the points ... and much of what I saw is 'preaching' not scholarship ... and no sources .. opinions

You have been misled by liberal scholars. It is not a knowable fact. It is a theory put forth by those that would destroy the Bible. You have no basis in fact here. I also have studied this matter quite thoroughly. I know that you are dead wrong. Answer me this. How can books written during the time of Christ be included in a book that was written between 250 and 150 B.C.? You are putting forth the impossible. You still have no answer for that question. Do some research. Find out the dates of the 14 books of the Apocrypha, when they were written.

Your opinion, actually I am not influenced byy 'liberal' scholars .. and no one I have studied with is trying to destroy the bible ... I will say that they do not have your anti-catholic bias ...

A few scholars date one or two of the apocrapha to the 1st century AD ... answer me this - how can apocryphal works found at Qumran have been written after Christ? ...

Do you know that they were not officially accepted, even by the RCC until 1534?
And do you know that the closing of the Canon by the catholics at Trent was a response to Luther's playing with the scriptures? Christian writings in which the catholics listed their canon existed long before Trent and they included these disputed writings. It is diengenous to state that the catholics 'added' these books at Trent - Sorry - but that is bigotry at work and I will not go there as history does not support it. I don't have a dog in that 500 year old debate with Luther

I have a copy of the Septuagint. It was printed in London by Bagster & Sons in 1879. It is an old book. In its introduction it gives a history of the Septuagint and tells how it went through a number of recensions. The Jews and Apostles would never have accepted the apocryphal books or allowed them into Septuagint. They were not put in until much later, possibly not until the date of Origen's time. The Septuagint that I have does not include the Apocryphal books.
How fortunate for you to have this book - I only have a pdf version .. aas well as for its not including the apocrypha - I hold that to the non-catholic position of the publisher .. He certainly mentions Sirach in the preface discussion so he knew it was part of the Septuagint - he just did not include those portions ... there are far older extant versions that include them .. you can call that catholic bias and added by catholics all you want ... funny how they influenced so much ancient manuscriptus - when you personally don't admit that catholics existed in the first 3 centuries ...
Then pick up any one of dozens of OT or NT Survey textbooks, Bible Encyclopedias, Bible Dictionaries, etc. But avoid the Catholic sources and other liberal sources. Even the study Bible that I use agrees with me.
I always like advice like - study but avoid this "source" because they are wrong .. I would not buy that advice from a "catholic" as in "study the scriputres but stay away from baptist sources" .... Your David Cloud has similar warnings about lots of denominations ....

There are two streams of thought concerning the Waldenses.
The one is that they were a people that followed Peter Waldo, a preacher in the 12th century. That is true.
However the word "Waldenses" also means "people of the valley." Even a Roman Catholic Bishop, Cardinal Hosius, attests that the Waldenses date right back to the Apostles.

Right - that quote from the Cardinal Hosius - can you cite the source - I mean other then the "Trail of Blood" citation because along with that book it - I think that one has been debunked as inaccuarate or at least a mischaracterization.

So for the record, I saw our claim uniting the Waldensians to the Itala - it is an intriguing thought but you really provide no authoritative sources other then an I say so, random bible quotes on the sufficiency and Godly inspiration of the Scriptures by a preacher [who holds anti-catholic and anti-just about every well known protestant], loys of discussion on how the KJV is the best , that you know exactly the historical dating of ancient manuscripts and don't think I do, that I am influenced by liberals and the inclusion of anti-catholic digs [as if that would mean anything to me personally].

What sources [scholarly] do you use to date the Waldensians to the 2nd century and for your assertion that the Septuagint or the Vetus Italia did not contain the apocrypha ... it is an easy request ... a Book Title and an Author ... and hopefully it won't be Jack Chick or Mr. Cloud
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
A few scholars date one or two of the apocrapha to the 1st century AD ... answer me this - how can apocryphal works found at Qumran have been written after Christ? ...
How many apocryphal books were found at Qumram?
And do you know that the closing of the Canon by the catholics at Trent was a response to Luther's playing with the scriptures?
The closing of the Canon has nothing to do with Catholics. Catholics have nothing to do with canonicity or preservation of our Scriptures. They were bent on destroying them. Read up on the history of William Tyndale.
Christian writings in which the catholics listed their canon existed long before Trent and they included these disputed writings. It is diengenous to state that the catholics 'added' these books at Trent -
Catholics officially accepted them at Trent, and not before then. Certainly they were listed in Catholic works long before then. I don't deny that. But that is when the RCC officially accepted them as canonical.
1. It is consistent throughout history that the Jews never accepted the Apocrypha (even though they supposedly are a part of the OT.
2. It is consistent throughout history that no group outside of the RCC never accepted the Apocrypha as canonical.
3. They were only officially accepted by the RCC at Trent.
4. The OT Canon was completed by 400 A.D. Any book written after that date would never even be considered as part of the canon of Scripture.
5. The Septuagint was simply a translation of the OT. It was not inspired. The sacred Scriptures were written in Hebrew. Orthodox Jews despised the Septuagint. It was written for Hellenistic Jews and the Greek population in general.
6. The Septuagint was written between 250 B.C. and 150 B.C. It is a fact that most of the Apocrypha was written after these dates and therefore could not have been included in the original Septuagint.
7. Their inclusion allows the RCC to teach unbiblical doctrine such as Purgatory, praying to the dead, and other such doctrine.
9. Some of them read like fairy tales, not like Scripture at all.
Sorry - but that is bigotry at work and I will not go there as history does not support it. I don't have a dog in that 500 year old debate with Luther
I have no idea what you are talking about.
How fortunate for you to have this book - I only have a pdf version .. aas well as for its not including the apocrypha - I hold that to the non-catholic position of the publisher .. He certainly mentions Sirach in the preface discussion so he knew it was part of the Septuagint - he just did not include those portions ... there are far older extant versions that include them .. you can call that catholic bias and added by catholics all you want ... funny how they influenced so much ancient manuscriptus - when you personally don't admit that catholics existed in the first 3 centuries ...
They were influenced by the authors of those books who wanted some notoriety, not necessarily the Catholics themselves.
I always like advice like - study but avoid this "source" because they are wrong .. I would not buy that advice from a "catholic" as in "study the scriputres but stay away from baptist sources" .... Your David Cloud has similar warnings about lots of denominations ....
And so he should. The RCC has done a good job at "Revisionist history."
Right - that quote from the Cardinal Hosius - can you cite the source - I mean other then the "Trail of Blood" citation because along with that book it - I think that one has been debunked as inaccuarate or at least a mischaracterization.
I originally saw it in J.T. Christian's book, "A History of the Baptists." He may have a reference for it, but I would have to look it up.

So for the record, I saw our claim uniting the Waldensians to the Itala - it is an intriguing thought but you really provide no authoritative sources other then an I say so, random bible quotes on the sufficiency and Godly inspiration of the Scriptures by a preacher [who holds anti-catholic and anti-just about every well known protestant], loys of discussion on how the KJV is the best , that you know exactly the historical dating of ancient manuscripts and don't think I do, that I am influenced by liberals and the inclusion of anti-catholic digs [as if that would mean anything to me personally].

What sources [scholarly] do you use to date the Waldensians to the 2nd century and for your assertion that the Septuagint or the Vetus Italia did not contain the apocrypha ... it is an easy request ... a Book Title and an Author ... and hopefully it won't be Jack Chick or Mr. Cloud
Here is a source:
The Itala Version
A mistake which is often made is the assumption that anything Latin or pertaining to Italy is to be associated with the Roman Catholic Church. However, in northern Italy as early as the 2nd century, there existed what was known as the Italic Church. Because it was located in the region of the sub-Alpine Italian Alps, its geographic remoteness and topographical ruggedness kept it from significant interaction with the Church of Rome. The Italic Church was the forerunner of churches in the same region which would later be called the Vaudois, or, alternatively, the Waldenses. Both of these names simply refer to "peoples of the valleys."7 The Italic or pre-Waldensian Church produced a version of the NT which was translated from the Received Text by the year A.D. 157.8 Theodore Beza, the associate and successor of John Calvin and the great Swiss reformer, credits the Italic Church to have begun in A.D. 120.9 The Bible translation of the Italic Church came known as the Itala translation (also known as the Italic). The point of all of this is that the Itala Bible was translated from the Received Text!10 It has existed since A.D. 157. Noted church historian Frederic Nolan confirms the same.11 This date is less than one hundred years after most of the books of the NT were written. The greater point is that the Itala (or Old Latin) was translated from the Received Text, indicating its existence to the earliest days of the NT church. Therefore, the Received Text clearly existed and was used by churches in early church history.

7. Vaudois is a French language derivative for “valleys” as waldenses is an Alpine word for “valleys.”
8. Frederick Henry Scrivener, A Plain Introduction to the Criticism of the New Testament, 2nd ed. (Cambridge, Deighton, Bell, & Co., 1874), 2:43.
9. McClintock and Strong, Encyclopedia, s.v. “Waldenses.”
10. Kenyon, Our Bible and the Ancient Manuscripts (New York: Harper Brothers, 1895, 1951), 169-71. Kenyon here refers to the Itala as the Old Latin which is another name for it. It should also be noted that Kenyon, though acknowledging that the Itala (Old Latin) was based upon the Received Text, rather sought to date it much later.
11. Frederick Nolan, An Inquiry into the Integrity of the Greek Vulgate: or, Received Text of the New Testament (London: F.C. & Rivington, 1815), xvii, xviii.
This is from David Sorenson's book, "Touch not the Unclean Thing," pp. 78,79.
Although the Waldenses themselves lived in the 12th century and were pre-Reformation, the question is: What Bible did they use. The contention is that they used a Bible that has its roots in antiquity--the Itala.



Note that Sorenson gives plenty of documentation for his work. I have included that as well.
 

WalkswithJesus

New Member
How many apocryphal books were found at Qumran?

Sirach [extant are ancient fragments in Hebrew - comprising about 2/3 of the work] composition of the work is dated around 160 BC +/-
Tobit found in hebrew, aramaic and greek composition is generally date to around the 2nd century BC
And Baruch which is usually dated to around 160 BC +/-

Dates of the other apocrypha: Daniel additions 2nd century BC, Wisdom, 2nd to 1st century BC, Additions to Esther circa 130 BC, 1 & 2 Maccabees 100-125 BC and Judith 2nd century BC

Though dating ancient writings is not an exact science and some scholars have different opinions - these are generally accepted dates.
 

WalkswithJesus

New Member
The closing of the Canon has nothing to do with Catholics. Catholics have nothing to do with canonicity or preservation of our Scriptures. They were bent on destroying them. Read up on the history of William Tyndale.
You want it both ways ... asking if I knew when they closed the canon then saying they had nothing to do with it. And history dictates that the catholic church had a hand in compiling and preserving the bible - again this position is silly - even Tyndale first sought approval for making another translation of the bible into English. The very first book published on Guttenberg’s printing was a bible and a catholic one at that...

As for atrocities, well catholic and protestant Christians have both performed some atrocious actions. That could be a "tit for tat" all day and looking back through the lens of history with a religious POV and the mind of a 21st century citizen is not going to get us any where ..
 

WalkswithJesus

New Member
1. It is consistent throughout history that the Jews never accepted the Apocrypha (even though they supposedly are a part of the OT.
Well many Jews did - as for canonicity - that is a term that is hard to define as Christians have a specific understanding of the word [and Christians don’t all agree] that may or may not be shared with our Jewish Brethren now let lone 2000 years ago

2. It is consistent throughout history that no group outside of the RCC never accepted the Apocrypha as canonical.
This assertion is false; many catholic rites accept the Apocrypha as do the Orthodox though they have even more Hebrew [OT] writings then catholics do
3. They were only officially accepted by the RCC at Trent.
And as I noted - the catholic church felt they had to do this because of Martin Luther's meddling with the books - and martin Luther did not just meddle with the OT but wanted to [though he was prevented from in order to gain support of the other reformers] remove some New Testament Writings as well - remove them to an appendix as it were and as they did with the apocrypha
 

WalkswithJesus

New Member
4. The OT Canon was completed by 400 A.D. Any book written after that date would never even be considered as part of the canon of Scripture.
And your source for a formal closing of the "Hebrew" Canon was this by Jews or Christians? Do you mean 400 BC? And none of the disputed books was written after 400 AD...

5. The Septuagint was simply a translation of the OT. It was not inspired. The sacred Scriptures were written in Hebrew. Orthodox Jews despised the Septuagint. It was written for Hellenistic Jews and the Greek population in general.
The Septuagint was a translation of Jewish Writings there was no "Old Testament" of which you speak ... that identification came only with the New Testament Church.... and there was no 'official' Jewish listing of Books other then the Torah... the first 5 books...
6. The Septuagint was written between 250 B.C. and 150 B.C. It is a fact that most of the Apocrypha was written after these dates and therefore could not have been included in the original Septuagint.
And just how would you identify this "original Septuagint? Do you have the list of included books? That remark is unsubstantiated and unsupportable.
 

WalkswithJesus

New Member
7. Their inclusion allows the RCC to teach unbiblical doctrine such as Purgatory, praying to the dead, and other such doctrine.
Now this is a totally different topic - the topic of doctrine - and we might agree that some denominations use the NT to teach unbiblical doctrines - so even if true it does not discount their being a part of the Septuagint.
9. Some of them read like fairy tales, not like Scripture at all.
Yes - well so does much of the uncontested books - so a phrase like "reads like fairy tales - not scripture does not mean much ...

The RCC has done a good job at "Revisionist history."
And so have you...

I originally saw it in J.T. Christian's book, "A History of the Baptists." He may have a reference for it, but I would have to look it up.
Yes we I think this use goes back to the "Trail of Blood" but I will check it out...


This is from David Sorenson's book, "Touch not the Unclean Thing," pp. 78,79.
Although the Waldenses themselves lived in the 12th century and were pre-Reformation, the question is: What Bible did they use. The contention is that they used a Bible that has its roots in antiquity--the Itala.
And the Vetus Itala was based upon a Septuagint that included the apocrypha as there is not any evidence of an apocrypha free Bible based upon the Septuagint - nor any references to on in any ancient writings.


The two oldest extant "Bibles" are the Codex Siniaticus which is missing much of the first half of the OT and contains all of the New... of the OT: 2 Esdras, Tobit, Judith, 1 & 2 Maccabees, Wisdom and Sirach are included. And this is in "protestant" control... The Codex Vaticanus is missing the first part of the OT and some of the NT but contains apocryphal books...
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
And the Vetus Itala was based upon a Septuagint that included the apocrypha as there is not any evidence of an apocrypha free Bible based upon the Septuagint - nor any references to on in any ancient writings.
The Itala (if it is the same or not I don't know) that I am referring to was translated close to 150 A.D., and translated from the Greek MSS which the early Christians had, and probably the Hebrew Masoretic Text. There is no evidence that it was translated from the Septuagint. Why are you insistent that it should be. Evidence says that it wasn't, but rather comes from the Majority Text, specifically the Textus receptus. It has nothing to do with the Septuagint.
The two oldest extant "Bibles" are the Codex Siniaticus which is missing much of the first half of the OT and contains all of the New... of the OT: 2 Esdras, Tobit, Judith, 1 & 2 Maccabees, Wisdom and Sirach are included. And this is in "protestant" control... The Codex Vaticanus is missing the first part of the OT and some of the NT but contains apocryphal books...
Older does not mean better. These aren't the oldest "extant" bibles by any stretch of the imagination. The Itala, Syriac, Peshitta, are all order. That is what I am trying to get into your head. Both Codices: Sinaiticus and Vaticanus may be two of the oldest Greek MSS, but there are other translations that are older, just as the Septuagint is a translation of the Hebrew OT.
The Itala was written about 150 A.D.
The Syriac and Peshitta were both written before 250 A.D.

Concerning the Sinaiticus:
Codex Sinaiticus, a manuscript of the Christian Bible written in the middle of the fourth century, contains the earliest complete copy of the Christian New Testament. The hand-written text is in Greek. The New Testament appears in the original vernacular language (koine) and the Old Testament in the version, known as the Septuagint, that was adopted by early Greek-speaking Christians. In the Codex, the text of both the Septuagint and the New Testament has been heavily annotated by a series of early correctors.
The significance of Codex Sinaiticus for the reconstruction of the Christian Bible's original text, the history of the Bible and the history of Western book-making is immense.
http://www.codexsinaiticus.org/en/codex/default.aspx


I don't often go to sites like this. They have some truth, but it shows you the intent and purpose for why they use these two MSS so heavily. They are "reconstructing" a Bible. That is what "higher criticism" is all about--the reconstruction of the text. The text of the NT doesn't need to be reconstructed. God has already preserved it.



Here again is a quote from Sorenson's book, page 50
the chief Alexandrian manuscripts (which make up the essence of the critical text) are disparate in their readings. There is no consistency. They at times contradict each other.10 Vaticanus and Sinaiticus alone show over 3,000 variants between themselves in just the gospels alone.11 Moreover, Tischendorf himself claimed that Aleph itself contains "15,000 changes made by contemporary or later hands."12

10. Jakob Van Bruggen, The Ancient Text of the NT (Winnipeg: Premiere Publishing, 1976), 31.
11. Herman Hoskier, Codex B and Its Allies: A Study and an Indictment (London:Bernard Quaritch1914)vi.
12. D.A. Waite, Defending the King James Bible (Collingswood, NJ: Bible for Today, 1992), 59.
Older doesn't mean better. As you can see these two MSS, the Vaticanus and Siniaticus are two of the most unreliable MSS available.



Concerning the Itala, Frederick Nolan, in his An Inquiry into the Integrity of the Greek Vulgate: or, Received Text of the New Testament (London: F.C. & J. Rivington, 1815), on pages xvii-xviii says this:
The Bible they (the Waldenses) originally used, the Itala (or sometimes called the Italic), was translated from the Received Text.
The received text has nothing to do with the Septuagint.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Sirach [extant are ancient fragments in Hebrew - comprising about 2/3 of the work] composition of the work is dated around 160 BC +/-
Tobit found in hebrew, aramaic and greek composition is generally date to around the 2nd century BC
And Baruch which is usually dated to around 160 BC +/-

Dates of the other apocrypha: Daniel additions 2nd century BC, Wisdom, 2nd to 1st century BC, Additions to Esther circa 130 BC, 1 & 2 Maccabees 100-125 BC and Judith 2nd century BC

Though dating ancient writings is not an exact science and some scholars have different opinions - these are generally accepted dates.
Again:
The Septuagint was started in 250 B.C. and finished in 150 B.C.

Sirach--160 B.C.
Tobit--2nd Century, meaning about 150 B.C. or earlier.
Baruch--160 B.C. or earlier.
Additions to Daniel--2nd century, meaning 150 B.C. or earlier.
Wisdom--between 2nd and 1st centuries or ca. 150-25 B.C. (That's a good one. :rolleyes:
Additions to Esther--ca. 130 B.C.
1 & 2 Maccabees--100-125 B.C.
Judith--2nd Century or about 150 B.C.

Only two of the above come close--160 B.C. and that by just ten years to the date of the completion of the Septuagint. Some of the dates you use simply say 2nd century, so I took the half way mark of 150, which also is the supposed completion mark of the Septuagint. However most of the work of the translation was done closer to 250 B.C.

Some of your remarks tell me that you don't know much of what you are speaking about.
What is the Septuagint?
It is a Greek translation of the OT, and that is all. It began in 250 B.C. and was finished shortly thereafter. It was translated by 72 Jewish scholars into the Greek language and hence the LXX by which it is also referred (the 72 being rounded off). "Sept" also referring to 7 or 70. Again Jews would never allow these Greek apocryphal books into their canon, which according to most OT authorities was finished and canonized by 400 B.C. Nothing could be added after 400 B.C. The Jews had their standards for canonization as well. The entire OT was in place before Christ came, and it didn't include the Apocrypha.

I have a study Bible which has some information on the Apocrypha.
Here are the dates it gives:

II Esdras--30 B.C.
Esther--165 B.C.
Wisdom of Solomon--end of the first century B.C.
Ecclesiasticus--180 B.C.
Bel and the Dragon (time of the Ptolemies)
Baruch--after the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D.

Now, with that information, I ask you again: How can a book (like Baruch) written more than 70 years after the birth of Christ be included in the Septuagint. Do you see how ridiculous that looks?
 

Thinkingstuff

Active Member
So by your own 'rule', then, are you saying that Esther should not be in the OT?

Esther is a bit complicated since there is the extended greek version and the hebrew only text. So does the Hebrew only text also be included in current text by his rule? The hebrew only book is in the tanach. Also how could you get rid of a book that shows the origins of Purim?
 

lori4dogs

New Member

lori4dogs

New Member
"19.We confess together that all persons depend completely on the saving grace of God for their salvation. The freedom they possess in relation to persons and the things of this world is no freedom in relation to salvation, for as sinners they stand under God's judgment and are incapable of turning by themselves to God to seek deliverance, of meriting their justification before God, or of attaining salvation by their own abilities. Justification takes place solely by God's grace. Because Catholics and Lutherans confess this together, it is true to say:

20.When Catholics say that persons "cooperate" in preparing for and accepting justification by consenting to God's justifying action, they see such personal consent as itself an effect of grace, not as an action arising from innate human abilities."

Sooooo . . . it's God justifying ACTION!
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
So by your own 'rule', then, are you saying that Esther should not be in the OT?
I believe the book called "Esther" here is another book than the Esther that is included in our canon of Scripture.

Ahasuerus reigned from 485-464 B.C, so it is logical to conclude that the book of Esther was written shortly after that date.

The Esther of the Apocrypha is correctly called "Additions to the Book of Esther."
 
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WalkswithJesus

New Member
Older does not mean better. These aren't the oldest "extant" bibles by any stretch of the imagination. The Itala, Syriac, Peshitta, are all order. That is what I am trying to get into your head. Both Codices: Sinaiticus and Vaticanus may be two of the oldest Greek MSS, but there are other translations that are older, just as the Septuagint is a translation of the Hebrew OT.
The Itala was written about 150 A.D.
The Syriac and Peshitta were both written before 250 A.D.

Concerning the Sinaiticus:

http://www.codexsinaiticus.org/en/codex/default.aspx


I don't often go to sites like this. They have some truth, but it shows you the intent and purpose for why they use these two MSS so heavily. They are "reconstructing" a Bible. That is what "higher criticism" is all about--the reconstruction of the text. The text of the NT doesn't need to be reconstructed. God has already preserved it.


The received text has nothing to do with the Septuagint.

DHK,

I think I begin to see why discussions with you devolve ...

I am beginning to think that it is you who don't know what you are talking about ... Sorry to seem harsh ..

Of course your take on all things biblical is schooled in an anti-historical and anti-catholic basis .. I guess I should not be surprised by that based on the thread title .....which I totally was not thinking of when I responded with questions that peaked my curiosity from your post ....

The oldest may not mean best - I never said it did .. it is however, the lens through which we study ancient writings and through which we come to understand them and the peoples who used them - an educated objective understanding ...

but for you and others schooled with a pre-determine POV that becomes God preserved them [and that preservations is the KJV] ... So there!

So just taking one of your listed Tests: the Peshitta ...

The oldest extant Peshitta dates to 464 AD and there are several manuscripts extant - more then 200 ... and Peshitta Manuscripts include the apocrypha [or deuterocanononical] books [FYI the oldest extant Peshitta does not even contain all of the Pentatuch - it is missing one of the five - Leviticus - if memory serves - so yes oldest does not mean best!] ...

True the majority of the OT appears to have been [mostly] translated from the hebrew - however, in fact, some parts were influenced by the Septuagint probably because of their use in the worship servces .... Some extant versions even have additional writings .. as one would expect due to the eastern regions [the Orthodox bibles still contain additonal writings not found in Catholic versions or protestant versions].

And FYI - the term "textus receptus" is not used in antiquity but came into use after the Reformation ... and as such its use comes with the baggage of both sides.

Since the Septuagint was a collection of writings that occurred over a period of time you have no basis upon which to state that it was completed on this date ... finished and totally complete .. you have no historical basis, no archeological basis and no schoarship to support you. Our best information upon what comprised the Spetuagint [I know this galls you] comes through the extant versions of the Jewish and Christian religious texts - manuscripts maintaind and copied plus various archeologic finds like Qumran.

It is not possible to argue/discuss the position that "God perserved the scriptures within the KJV".... that is not scholarship - liberal or conservative - new age or orthodox ... that is a "I am right - you are wrong and I don't have to show anything other then my belief to prove it and oh yes - these people agree with me" ...

Like your posts - full of half truths and opinion ... and you think "catholics" are re-writing history - sheesh
 
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DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
DHK,

I think I begin to see why discussions with you devolve ...

I am beginning to think that it is you who don't know what you are talking about ... Sorry to seem harsh ..

Of course your take on all things biblical is schooled in an anti-historical and anti-catholic basis .. I guess I should not be surprised by that based on the thread title .....which I totally was not thinking of when I responded with questions that peaked my curiosity from your post ....

The oldest may not mean best - I never said it did .. it is however, the lens through which we study ancient writings and through which we come to understand them and the peoples who used them - an educated objective understanding ...

but for you and others schooled with a pre-determine POV that becomes God preserved them [and that preservations is the KJV] ... So there!
Your personal assault of me is unwarranted. I am not KJVO. I never said the Bible is preserved in the KJV. I have no use for that nonsense. If your form of argument is throwing aspersions at another than we can stop now. It is apparent to me that you have not studied this matter out very thoroughly. If you have you have used rose-colored glasses picking up very liberal texts. Perhaps you have been to the Jesus Seminar, have faith in Vatican II, trust in the writings of Bishop Sheen, and German Rationalists, I don't know. But wherever you are getting your information from it is not accurate. Even the most basic of textbooks in most Bible Colleges contradict those things which you post on this board.
I have 8 years of post-secondary education, most of it in theology.
So when you come up with off-the-wall comments like the Septuagint is a collection of Hebrew writings (not just the OT), I am going to doubt where you get such information. Much of the information I have given I don't have to reference because it is basic, learned over many years of teaching. For example, your statement that dates back to 464 is ludicrous. The only plausible truth in it may be that the "oldest extant Peshitta dates to 464, but that doesn't mean that it came into existence then. It is more than 200 years older than that. That is just common knowledge.
Your argumentation is full of holes. All the Jews had the OT at that time. That is what they referred to as the Scriptures in verses such as Acts 17:11. They weren't missing any books for it was canonized by 400 B.C. At the time of Christ, as he went into the synagogue he picked up the Scriptures and read from them. They had the OT.
This discussion revolves around the NT, with the exception of the apocrypha. The Peshitta contains all of the NT's 27 books. That is the important thing to take home with you. Whether or not it was connected with the OT is not important. The OT was available elsewhere.
So just taking one of your listed Tests: the Peshitta ...

The oldest extant Peshitta dates to 464 AD and there are several manuscripts extant - more then 200 ... and Peshitta Manuscripts include the apocrypha [or deuterocanononical] books [FYI the oldest extant Peshitta does not even contain all of the Pentatuch - it is missing one of the five - Leviticus - if memory serves - so yes oldest does not mean best!] ...
It doesn't matter whether or not some or even all of the OT books are missing. We are speaking of the NT. We are speaking the Greek. The OT was written in Hebrew. The Peshitta was a translation. Most translations translate the NT first and then get around to the OT. I am not concerned with the OT.
True the majority of the OT appears to have been [mostly] translated from the hebrew - however, in fact, some parts were influenced by the Septuagint probably because of their use in the worship servces .... Some extant versions even have additional writings .. as one would expect due to the eastern regions [the Orthodox bibles still contain additonal writings not found in Catholic versions or protestant versions].
That depends where it came from and who influenced the translation, and also the era in which it was translated.
And FYI - the term "textus receptus" is not used in antiquity but came into use after the Reformation ... and as such its use comes with the baggage of both sides.
It came later. But it came from the Majority Text. The Majority Text means that the majority of the existing churches accepted that text being used at that time. In time the Received Text or textus receptus came from the Majority Text, from which the KJV was translated.
Since the Septuagint was a collection of writings that occurred over a period of time you have no basis upon which to state that it was completed on this date ... finished and totally complete .. you have no historical basis, no archeological basis and no schoarship to support you.
It is statements like this that make me wonder about where you get your knowledge from, and even if you have any working knowledge about the Septuagint at all. What you said above is completely false. And though you claim you have evidence to support it, you don't.
Our best information upon what comprised the Spetuagint [I know this galls you] comes through the extant versions of the Jewish and Christian religious texts - manuscripts maintaind and copied plus various archeologic finds like Qumran.
What was found at Qumran was the Dead Sea Scrolls. I also have books on the Dead Sea Scrolls. In fact I have a library in excess of 2,000 books. What was in the Dead Sea Scrolls: 19 copies of the Book of Isaiah, 25 copies of Deuteronomy, and 30 copies of Psalms, and fragments of the other books of the OT. Most of what was found was written in Hebrew; some in Aramaic, and a few in Greek. None of the scrolls refer to Jesus or his followers. Hardly a source for "Christian writings" is it? Not much of a source for the Septuagint either since most of the scrolls were written in Hebrew. What the finds in the Dead Sea Scrolls do is verify the accuracy of the books of the OT, especially as they are contained in the Masoretic Text. They actually work against you, not for you.
It is not possible to argue/discuss the position that "God perserved the scriptures within the KJV".... that is not scholarship
One of your false accusations. I never said it did. Would you like to quote me on that or recant what you said.
- liberal or conservative - new age or orthodox ... that is a "I am right - you are wrong and I don't have to show anything other then my belief to prove it and oh yes - these people agree with me" ...
Again your arrogance. You don't seem to have a basic knowledge of the Bible. You set forth "your facts," and your facts are not facts at all. Study some more. Find out the real facts before posting.
Like your posts - full of half truths and opinion ... and you think "catholics" are re-writing history - sheesh
Yes Catholics do re-write history.
They also post more of the truth than you have been doing.
 

lori4dogs

New Member
DHK: Thsi is comming from a man who holds the revisionist veiw that Matthew (who virtually every serious scholar of the Bible disagree with you) wrote the gospel of Matthew in Greek. We even havle apostles who attest that he worte in Hebrew. Yet, you insitst two thousand year later he worte in Greek. Why, because it is extremenly important if you are going to attempt to prove Mathew was not the rock that Christ built His church upon.

That is the kind of revisionism that people find contrived and made up.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
DHK: Thsi is comming from a man who holds the revisionist veiw that Matthew (who virtually every serious scholar of the Bible disagree with you) wrote the gospel of Matthew in Greek. We even havle apostles who attest that he worte in Hebrew. Yet, you insitst two thousand year later he worte in Greek. Why, because it is extremenly important if you are going to attempt to prove Mathew was not the rock that Christ built His church upon.

That is the kind of revisionism that people find contrived and made up.
1. Show me an apostle that says that Matthew wrote in Hebrew. (BTW, this is the first time I am hearing this.)
2. Give me any evidence anywhere that Matthew wrote in Hebrew. Do you have one shred of evidence at all.
3. Even if you have any evidence at all, suppose, just suppose I give you the benefit of the doubt for one second, what difference would it make?
4. The important thing to realize is that the entirety of the NT (Matthew included) was inspired by the Holy Spirit in the Greek language! It does not matter if he wrote in English, German, French, Latin, etc. The Holy Spirit inspired the Greek and only the Greek writing of Matthew. Matthew may have known 200 languages (he didn't), but the language that was inspired by the Holy Spirit was Greek. That is what our NT was written in. That is what you must deal with. That is what you must understand. Understand? Comprendez-vous?
 

steaver

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
......but for you and others schooled with a pre-determine POV ...........

What honest, God fearing, student of the Word would have any interest in studying the scriptures with a pre-determined POV? These remarks are hurled around all the time and they do absolutely nothing but indicate that the one hurling them is frustrated that another actually holds a different POV than their own.

We are suppose to be iron sharpening iron, but rather than sharpening our swords for use on the enemy we are guilty of turning them on each other.

Careful, lest God give you a spirit of confusion for not applying a spirit of love.

:jesus:
 

Zenas

Active Member
4. The important thing to realize is that the entirety of the NT (Matthew included) was inspired by the Holy Spirit in the Greek language! It does not matter if he wrote in English, German, French, Latin, etc. The Holy Spirit inspired the Greek and only the Greek writing of Matthew. Matthew may have known 200 languages (he didn't), but the language that was inspired by the Holy Spirit was Greek. That is what our NT was written in. That is what you must deal with. That is what you must understand. Understand? Comprendez-vous?
Wow! That is strong stuff. Are you suggesting the Holy Spirit understands no language but Greek? Or it that just His favorite language? Where did you ever come up with that?
 
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