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Another Catholic question (sorry guys!)

annsni

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
And other question for everyone, when Jesus said, 'give us this day our daily bread. What kind of bread was this? The word in greek is epi ousios and I'm told appears no where else in scripture. St. Jerome translated it to mean supersubtantial bread. We were to receive it daily and its supernatural just like manna.

I don't know where you heard this but it's wrong. The word "bread" is "artos" and is used in the KJV 99 times. "Daily" is "epiousios" which is an adjective to describe the bread and it's only used in this passage. It does reflect back to the bread that the Israelites made - not manna.
 

annsni

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Matt is Anglican. Depending on his churchmanship (and from his postings I assume he is an evangelical) would have somewhat of a different position on this. We are told to present ourselves as living sacrifices to God, holy and acceptable which is our spiritual act of worship. God provided the rest. We may grow the wheat and grapes from which our 'gifts' of bread and wine are presented (God provided the means) we also present ourselves, souls, bodies as living sacrifices as an act of worship.

So ourselves are represented in the bread and wine that becomes Christ's body and blood? I don't understand.

Again this is NOT a re-sacrifice of Christ. The sacrifice He made on Calvary is timeless. The blood He shed was sufficient to cover the sins of the saint of God before his incarnation and it is sufficient for eternity. This a re-presentation (bloodless) sacrifice.

But if it is truly His body and blood, then it is not a bloodless sacrifice, is it? And why are we re-presenting Christ's sacrifice over and over again when it's done? There is only one sacrifice and it is finished - Christ said so Himself.

Dr. Brant Pitre has written excellent commentary on why the early Christians believed the Eucharist was Jesus' body and blood. Without getting into too much detail, he says the Eucharist was like the Old Passover, participated in the New Passover of Jesus. You see you had to eatthe lamb that had been sacrificed. Remember, St. Paul saying 'Christ, our paschal lamb has been sacrificed for us. Therefore let us keep the feast" I Cor 5:7-8

Yes, the families ate the lamb but they were not saved from death by eating the lamb but by the blood of the lamb on the doorposts of the house. The "Angel of Death" didn't go into the homes to see who ate and didn't eat the lamb but the blood was the sign.

Now so all stones aren't thrown in my direction. Ask a Lutheran, Anglican, or Orthodox when the Epiclecis occurs during the Eucharist?

No problem. I understand that you all are wrong on your view of communion. ;)
 

lori4dogs

New Member
I don't know where you heard this but it's wrong. The word "bread" is "artos" and is used in the KJV 99 times. "Daily" is "epiousios" which is an adjective to describe the bread and it's only used in this passage. It does reflect back to the bread that the Israelites made - not manna.

So, it does describe the 'artos' as 'epiousios' (supersubstantial?) and it is the epiousios that only appears in this passage?

Why would it not reflect back to the manna? He says give us this day our daily (supersubstantial) bread. That is what he did for Israel.
 

lori4dogs

New Member
Ann, we present ourselves, souls, bodies to be a reasonable living sacrifice. In addition we bring bread and wine to offer.
 

annsni

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
So, it does describe the 'artos' as 'epiousios' (supersubstantial?) and it is the epiousios that only appears in this passage?

Why would it not reflect back to the manna? He says give us this day our daily (supersubstantial) bread. That is what he did for Israel.

There is no "supersubstantial" in the passage. Instead it is giving the sense of a bread that is sufficient to take from one day to the next. It is the bread that the Israelites made each day that was about the size of a dinner plate and as thick as a thumb. Yes, like manna, it is a bread that sustains us but it is a man-made bread and not like manna that is made by God.
 

annsni

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Ann, we present ourselves, souls, bodies to be a reasonable living sacrifice. In addition we bring bread and wine to offer.

Why is our living sacrifice only given at the Eucherist and not daily in every moment? We need a special time/place/intercessor to give our sacrifice?
 

lori4dogs

New Member
Why is our living sacrifice only given at the Eucherist and not daily in every moment? We need a special time/place/intercessor to give our sacrifice?

Your right, shouldn't just be taking place during Church.

As to the sacrificial objection you stated.

Vincent Arong notes:However, since Christ has eternally vanquished death, he can no longer suffer and die as he did on the Cross. Therefore the sign of the separate consecrations recall the means of Christ's sacrifice on Calvary -- which was death -- yet, at the same time, makes present the essential reality of that very same sacrifice-- which is himself. On the other hand, since the separate consecrations refer to the death of Christ, the sign-reality connection that exists between the Mass and Calvary is maintained. This leads to a profound implication: since the Mass makes present Christ's sacrifice, that would mean that the priest and the offering are synonymous and identical at both the Mass and at Calvary: Jesus Christ. Therefore, not only do the signs of bread and wine make present the reality of Jesus' sacrifice on the Cross, but they also make present the very reality of the body and blood of Jesus Christ himself. The union that exists between the Mass and the death of Christ is not just in the event of the sacrifice but also in Him who is given in sacrifice, namely, Jesus Christ.

Remember St. Paul's chastisement of the Corinthians for not discerning the Lords body and blood in the Eucharist?
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
This leads to a profound implication: since the Mass makes present Christ's sacrifice, that would mean that the priest and the offering are synonymous and identical at both the Mass and at Calvary: Jesus Christ. Therefore, not only do the signs of bread and wine make present the reality of Jesus' sacrifice on the Cross, but they also make present the very reality of the body and blood of Jesus Christ himself. The union that exists between the Mass and the death of Christ is not just in the event of the sacrifice but also in Him who is given in sacrifice, namely, Jesus Christ.
Specifically titled, "The Sacrifice of the Mass," an event in which Christ is re-sacrificed over and over again.

The Bible is specific about this event also:
Hebrews 9:28 So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.

Hebrews 9:12 Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us.

Hebrews 10:10 By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.

Hebrews 10:12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;

The RCC make a mockery of such scripture.
 

Zenas

Active Member
Specifically titled, "The Sacrifice of the Mass," an event in which Christ is re-sacrificed over and over again.

The Bible is specific about this event also:
Hebrews 9:28 So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.

Hebrews 9:12 Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us.

Hebrews 10:10 By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.

Hebrews 10:12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;

The RCC make a mockery of such scripture.
Maybe so, but the sacrifice of the mass sure is a convenient explanation for Malachi 1:11:
For from the rising of the sun even unto the going down of the same my name shall be great among the Gentiles; and in every place incense shall be offered unto my name, and a pure offering: for my name shall be great among the heathen, saith the LORD of hosts.
What offering could be more pure than the body and blood of Christ?
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Maybe so, but the sacrifice of the mass sure is a convenient explanation for Malachi 1:11:What offering could be more pure than the body and blood of Christ?
The verse:

For from the rising of the sun even unto the going down of the same my name shall be great among the Gentiles; and in every place incense shall be offered unto my name, and a pure offering: for my name shall be great among the heathen, saith the LORD of hosts.

is in the future, and it speaks of the Millennial Kingdom, when offerings will be made from every corner of the earth to Christ, and thus this verse will be literally true.
It has nothing to do with what profanity goes on in the RCC today.
 

Zenas

Active Member
The verse:

For from the rising of the sun even unto the going down of the same my name shall be great among the Gentiles; and in every place incense shall be offered unto my name, and a pure offering: for my name shall be great among the heathen, saith the LORD of hosts.

is in the future, and it speaks of the Millennial Kingdom, when offerings will be made from every corner of the earth to Christ, and thus this verse will be literally true.
It has nothing to do with what profanity goes on in the RCC today.
But what if there is no "millennial kingdom"? I know you think there is and by so thinking you're in good company. However, there continues to be heated debate over the matter of premillennialism/postmilennialism/amillennialism and none of us can really know for sure. Besides, Malachi does not say this refers to the millennial kingdom and nowhere else does scripture talk about sacrifices being offered during this theoretical period. Besides, if Christ died once for all, what possible reason could there be for making these offerings?
 
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DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
But what if there is no "millennial kingdom"? I know you think there is and by so thinking you're in good company. However, there continues to be heated debate over the matter of premillennialism/postmilennialism/amillennialism and none of us can really know for sure. Besides, Malachi does not say this refers to the millennial kingdom and nowhere else does scripture talk about sacrifices being offered during this theoretical period. Besides, if Christ died once for all, what possible reason could there be for making these offerings?
I am not concerned with what others may speculate. I am convinced in my mind that there will be a Millennial Kingdom and the prophecy will be fulfilled that Jesus will reign on the throne of David for a thousand years. For that not to happen there is too much Scripture either to deny or to ignore.
Concerning "sacrifices", it speaks more of offerings than sacrifices. I believe these would be more thank offerings not blood sacrifices, or praise offerings.
 

Zenas

Active Member
I am not concerned with what others may speculate. I am convinced in my mind that there will be a Millennial Kingdom and the prophecy will be fulfilled that Jesus will reign on the throne of David for a thousand years. For that not to happen there is too much Scripture either to deny or to ignore.
Concerning "sacrifices", it speaks more of offerings than sacrifices. I believe these would be more thank offerings not blood sacrifices, or praise offerings.
There is no scripture that links Malachi 1:11 to the so called millennial kingdom.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
There is no scripture that links Malachi 1:11 to the so called millennial kingdom.
Malachi 1:11 For from the rising of the sun even unto the going down of the same my name shall be great among the Gentiles; and in every place incense shall be offered unto my name, and a pure offering: for my name shall be great among the heathen, saith the LORD of hosts.

When in history has this ever happened and is it happening now?
The Gentiles are the nations--all nations and peoples other than the Jews.
Over one billion of the world's population are Muslim.
One billion are Hindu.
One Billion live in China and practice Confucianism, Taoism, etc.

That accounts for half of the world's population right there.
The name of the Lord Jesus Christ is not known among these peoples. These nations do not bow down to Christ as Lord. They do not offer incense to him. His name is not great among these nations. That is not happening today, and will not happen until Christ rules this world, and rules with a rod of iron, and in perfect peace and harmony.
 

Zenas

Active Member
Malachi 1:11 For from the rising of the sun even unto the going down of the same my name shall be great among the Gentiles; and in every place incense shall be offered unto my name, and a pure offering: for my name shall be great among the heathen, saith the LORD of hosts.

When in history has this ever happened and is it happening now?
The Gentiles are the nations--all nations and peoples other than the Jews.
Over one billion of the world's population are Muslim.
One billion are Hindu.
One Billion live in China and practice Confucianism, Taoism, etc.

That accounts for half of the world's population right there.
The name of the Lord Jesus Christ is not known among these peoples. These nations do not bow down to Christ as Lord. They do not offer incense to him. His name is not great among these nations. That is not happening today, and will not happen until Christ rules this world, and rules with a rod of iron, and in perfect peace and harmony.
All right, so you agree there is no scriptural nexus between Malachi 1:11 and the "millennial kingdom." And do you really think there would be Gentiles (nations in the modern translations) in the "millennial kingdom"? As I understand it from the premillennialists, Christ will reign in this kingdom of the future. In the Kingdom of God "there is neither Jew nor Greek," so Malachi 1:11 must be referring to something else.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
All right, so you agree there is no scriptural nexus between Malachi 1:11 and the "millennial kingdom." And do you really think there would be Gentiles (nations in the modern translations) in the "millennial kingdom"? As I understand it from the premillennialists, Christ will reign in this kingdom of the future. In the Kingdom of God "there is neither Jew nor Greek," so Malachi 1:11 must be referring to something else.
According to the Pre-mill position there is a seven year period called The Great Tribulation. At the end of that period "the remnant", that is the nation of Israel as a whole will turn to Christ when he comes again. It will be at the battle of Armageddon, and the nations of the world that will come up against Israel will be defeated.
Thus there will be Jews distinct from Gentiles (which survived the Tribulation), both of which are distinct from those believers which were raptured seven years before that event. The OT repeatedly speaks about the Messiah coming in glory for His own, that is the Jews. Even in John 1:11, "He came to His own, but his own received him not." But there will come a day when they will receive him.

Romans 11:26 And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:
--This is yet to be fulfilled.
 

Matt Black

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
That's the sort of thing I just don't get. In light of Scripture, how can it be my sacrifice? (Know that I'm not arguing with you Matt, but the ideas that are there and I know you're helping me out with your understanding of stuff). It's just so....off to me. You know?
Yes , I understand. I think it's fair to say that I understand more of the Catholic position since leaving the Catholic Church in my teens than I ever did whilst I was in it! But the sacrifice of the Mass is still something I struggle to get my head round; I guess I, in common with virtually everyone else here, have better self-catechised than I was by the Church (or at least think I have!)!. I might pose your questions on another Christian board I frequent and get back to you with the replies.
 
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Matt Black

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Matt is Anglican. Depending on his churchmanship (and from his postings I assume he is an evangelical)
-ish! I'm a member of Reform if that assists.
Now so all stones aren't thrown in my direction. Ask a Lutheran, Anglican, or Orthodox when the Epiclecis occurs during the Eucharist?
When the minister calls the Holy Spirit down on the gifts to make them holy so that they may become "for us the Body and Blood of Christ" (Anglican Eucharistic epiclesis); my understanding though is that the Catholic view (in contrast to those of the other churches to which you have referred) is that the elements become the Body and Blood at the Words of Institution, not the epiclesis...yes?
 

Matt Black

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Specifically titled, "The Sacrifice of the Mass," an event in which Christ is re-sacrificed over and over again.

The Bible is specific about this event also:
Hebrews 9:28 So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.

Hebrews 9:12 Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us.

Hebrews 10:10 By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.

Hebrews 10:12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;

The RCC make a mockery of such scripture.
Straw man!! Re-presentation of the sacrifice made once for all, NOT re-sacrifice
 

Matt Black

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
OK, the response I got on the other board from one of the Catholics (he's a Thomist theologian BTW so no slouch!) is that the the issue of the who, why, how and when of the sacrifice is an open question!
 
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