J.D.'s response is in bold.
Do you think that God hardening the Jews and ingrafting the Gentiles has nothing to do with Calvinistic doctrine? Let me ask you this - does God want to save the Jews? If so, why has He hardened them? Judicially or not, WHY HAS HE HARDENED THEM IF HE WANTS THEM TO BE SAVED?
As for your experience, you might have simply fell off the fence on to the side to which you were leaning all along.
Skandelon said:Was it now? Or could it be that Paul was anticipating the protest of a Jew who was being judicially hardened? read on...
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Jew or not, unregenerate man always protests against God's sovereignty.
I could not agree more. However, you must consider who Paul is addressing in this passage. He is not addressing the idea of God saving some random individual and rejecting other random individuals. He is addressing the idea that God is hardening his chosen people, the Jews, all the while saving dirty sinful Gentiles. So it not of the Jew who runneth after the law, but it it up to God who can show mercy even to dirty Gentiles.
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So, are you saying that this has some jewish-only understaning? Are you a hyperdispensationalist? Does this passage teach us that God can harden whomever He will, as long as he is a jew? Or can he harden Gentiles also? And, is this passage teaching us that God can only have mercy on dirty rotten Gentiles? Or can he have mercy on the Jews also?
This is a key verse. Why? Because it clearly tells us that God is speaking of judicial hardening. Have you studied the doctrine of judicial hardening? It is very different from the Calvinistic teaching men being born totally depraved and unable to respond. Being hardened is something that happens over time, not from birth. A man grows hardened only after continual rejection of the truth and judicial hardening of that individual only happens when God chooses to seal that man in his unbelief...which is show to be done for a greater purpose of mercy.
What do you mean, "judicial" hardening? Are you saying they were hardened because they deserved hardening? Who, then, among us sinners, does not deserve to be judicially hardened?
Was Pharoe a Jew? No. God hardens whom He will. Jew or not.
Men are not born hardened, they become hardened. If your doctrine of Total depravity were true then explain to me how a man who is born blind could "grow blind." Read Acts 28:21-28. Notice how it teaches that they grow hardened and especially notice what they might been able to do had they not grown hardened. Also notice the difference in the condition of the Jews and the Gentiles as they are contrasted in verse 28.
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The blinding was an act of God. He can blind them in the womb and keep them blind till the tomb. That's His call to make. When He does and how He does it is up to Him. He also opens the eyes of those He has chosen to receive light. Jews and Gentiles.
I was 19 when I first was confronted with the doctrine of Calvinism and I too had a similar "awakening" when reading Romans 9, but 10 years later I realized my error and I pray you do too. This has nothing to do with supporting Calvinistic doctrine. It has to do with God hardening Israelites while ingrafting the Gentiles. I'd be glad to talk it through with you if you are open to exaiming your own beliefs, but typically Calvinists are so entrenched in being right they rarely are willing to even ask "what if." I know because I was one of you....
Do you think that God hardening the Jews and ingrafting the Gentiles has nothing to do with Calvinistic doctrine? Let me ask you this - does God want to save the Jews? If so, why has He hardened them? Judicially or not, WHY HAS HE HARDENED THEM IF HE WANTS THEM TO BE SAVED?
As for your experience, you might have simply fell off the fence on to the side to which you were leaning all along.