Dr. Walter
New Member
I believe it was a couple of years ago that I made the assertion here that it is clear that Luke and John regarded Mary as the Ark of the New Covenant. You smugly challenged me to show you where and I gave you quite a few passages. I assume from your failure to respond or challenge me further that you must have recognized the truth of what I was saying.
I never responded because it was so far fetched, so fabricated through undue inferences that I thought it a waste of time to disprove.
The verses you cited make no such claim. Isaiah 8:20 must be read in light of Isaiah 8:19 which denounces the consulting of mediums and recommends consulting God instead. Then 8:20 says, “To the law and to the testimony! If they do not speak according to this word, it is because they have no dawn.”
No, Isaiah 8:20 must be read in the light of Isaiah 8:16-19 which has direct prophetic application to the apostle of Jesus Christ and their mission to complete the Biblical canon of scripture. Overall, it fits between Isaiah 7:14 and Isaiah 9:6 in regard to the birth of Christ and his earthly ministry. Isaiah 8:17 is directly quoted in hebrews 2:9 an applied to the apostles first mentioned in Hebrews 2:3. This text (Isa. 8:16) definitively predicts completion of the Biblical canon among the apostles of Jesus Christ and Isaiah 8:20 affirms it as the final authority for faith and practice in contrast to authorities sought out by other religions.
It is reasonably clear that “the law” is the Torah. Therefore, since we have a conjunction, “the testimony” must be something else. The testimony to which Isaiah refers is oral and written tradition. Some of it got in the Bible, e.g., the writings of Isaiah himself.
Jesus nor the apostles EVER appealed to the oral "traditions of the elders" as the basis of any doctrine. They always based their doctrine and practice upon "it is written." The reason should be plain. Oral traditions becomes invalidated with time as it becomes more and more corrupted. This is exactly why Peter while he was still living claimed that WRITTEN prophecy was a "MORE SURE WORD" than his own oral traditions (2 Pet. 1:17-19).
The written Word of God ALWAYS takes precedence over oral traditions and that can be clearly seen in Christ and the apostles as they NEVER ONCE claimed the oral "traditions of the elders" as the basis for doctrine and practice. Rather they went directly to the scriptures and said repeatedly "thus it is WRITTEN." The only time Christ made a open reference to the oral traditions was when he corrected their corrupted interpretation of scriptures (Mt. 5:21-47).
Indeed, Rome is more like the Pharisees whose interpretations of the scriptures where determined by the "traditions fo the elders" or the oral traditions passed down.
Other “testimonies” were handed down by extra-biblical writings or by oral tradition, e.g., the chair of Moses referenced in Matthew 23:32, and the names of the priests of Pharaoh referenced in 2 Timothy 3:8.
You mention Christ and the apostles incorporating parts of the oral traditions.They spoke under inspiration as that is what it required to discern the errors from the truth found in the oral traditions. However, the so-called church fathers did not write under inspiration.
Oral traditions were temporary in design both in the Old and New Testament times. They were superseded as soon as the written Word was produced and that is precisely Peter's point in 2 Pet. 1:17-19. While he was yet living, he told the churches that the WRITTEN word of prophecy is "MORE SURE" than his own oral apostolic tradition. Don't take too much sense to figure out why. Just whisper ten words in the ear of a person standing next to you and let him in turn whisper it to the next person to him and so on through twenty people and at the end you get a different story. Oral tradition was never meant or designed to extend beyond the life of the prophet EXCEPT through WRITTEN form.
The "testimony" by Messanic context refers to what Jesus called the "testimony" given to the last living apostle in Revelation 1:3 that included the words given by Christ to the apostles to be written down and completed.
There is likewise no claim of biblical exclusivity in 2 Timothy 3:15-16. It makes a pretty good case for the truth of scripture and it is one reason I believe in the truth of scripture, although not the main reason. In fact when Paul wrote this letter to Timothy, he probably had the O.T. in mind.
Wrong! Paul much earlier referred to his own writings as inspired by God and so did Peter. The apostles realized their task was to provide a written presentation and defense of "the faith" delivered to them by Christ. They began with orally passing it down and then they put it into writing while claiming it was scripture.
Furthermore, 2 Timothy 3:16-17 NEVER mentions or includes ORAL TRADITIONS so that the "man of God may be thoroughly furnished unto ALL GOOD WORKS." However, according to Romanism that should have been included. Moreover, scripture is explicitly given for doctrine, correction, instruction in all righteousness but no mention, not one word about ORAL TRADITIONS. Peter bluntly declared that WRITTEN prophecy was "MORE SURE" than apostolic oral traditions. Why? Because like the "traditions of the elders" which were oral traditons they corrupt easily and quickly.
The New Testament writers did the same thing as the Old Testament writers. They began with oral traditions UNTIL they were written and then the WRITTEN superseded the oral as final authority for faith and practice.