This is the strangest position I have ever encountered on this topic.
Jesus and the writers referred to Scriptures and quoted the Old Testament, but you believe Jesus was not referring to Scrioture that existed when He referred to Scripture but the gospels and epistles that would be written decades after the Resurrection.
I have to say, I disagree with
@SavedByGrace but I understand his view (and hope he understands mine). People do not have to agree, sometimes it is good enough to understand differences.
But I cannot make any sense out of your view. Can you provide a reference explaining your position here?