Arrogance of changing Scripture

[loDebar]

I struggled with determining the tile. I decided this is actually occurs when we try to explain scripture in a way we choose to be able to understand. Not belief in the scripture but faith in how it fits our understanding.

And Jesus walked in the temple in Solomon's porch.
Jhn 10:24 Then came the Jews round about him, and said unto him, How long dost thou make us to doubt? If thou be the Christ, tell us plainly.
Jhn 10:25 Jesus answered them, I told you, and ye believed not: the works that I do in my Father's name, they bear witness of me.
Jhn 10:26 But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you.
Jhn 10:27 My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:
Jhn 10:28 And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.
Jhn 10:29 My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand.
Jhn 10:30 I and my Father are one.
Jhn 10:31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him.
Jhn 10:32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?
Jhn 10:33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
Jhn 10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
Jhn 10:35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;
Jhn 10:36
Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?
Jhn 10:37
If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not.
Jhn 10:38
But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him.
Jhn 10:39
Therefore they sought again to take him: but he escaped out of their hand,

John 10:34 is a quote from Psalms 82
Psa 82:6
I have said, Ye are gods; {elohyim} and all of you are children of the most High.
Psa 82:7
But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.

elyôwn, el-yone'; from H5927; an elevation, i.e. (adj.) lofty (comparison); as title, the Supreme:—(Most, on) high(-er, -est), upper(-most).


Jesus is talking to Jews who intended to kill him. You are elohyim. To suggest that this is means anything less than god's as it says is to say:

Jesus was not aware of being accused of blasphemy or Jesus answered incorrectly answered the charge replying "mighty" or rulers" instead on "elohyim"

either way it is insulting to Jesus.

 

[atpollard]

Jesus is talking to Jews who intended to kill him. You are elohyim. To suggest that this is means anything less than god's as it says is to say:

And to say that it means 'gods' is to have Jesus claiming other men are also gods as He is God ... hence the confusion of many who read those words and struggle to honestly understand what Jesus' intended meaning was.

 

[John of Japan]

I struggled with determining the tile. I decided this is actually occurs when we try to explain scripture in a way we choose to be able to understand. Not belief in the scripture but faith in how it fits our understanding.

And Jesus walked in the temple in Solomon's porch.
Jhn 10:24 Then came the Jews round about him, and said unto him, How long dost thou make us to doubt? If thou be the Christ, tell us plainly.
Jhn 10:25 Jesus answered them, I told you, and ye believed not: the works that I do in my Father's name, they bear witness of me.
Jhn 10:26 But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you.
Jhn 10:27 My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:
Jhn 10:28 And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.
Jhn 10:29 My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand.
Jhn 10:30 I and my Father are one.
Jhn 10:31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him.
Jhn 10:32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?
Jhn 10:33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
Jhn 10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
Jhn 10:35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;
Jhn 10:36
Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?
Jhn 10:37
If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not.
Jhn 10:38
But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him.
Jhn 10:39
Therefore they sought again to take him: but he escaped out of their hand,

John 10:34 is a quote from Psalms 82
Psa 82:6
I have said, Ye are gods; {elohyim} and all of you are children of the most High.
Psa 82:7
But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.

elyôwn, el-yone'; from H5927; an elevation, i.e. (adj.) lofty (comparison); as title, the Supreme:—(Most, on) high(-er, -est), upper(-most).


Jesus is talking to Jews who intended to kill him. You are elohyim. To suggest that this is means anything less than god's as it says is to say:

Jesus was not aware of being accused of blasphemy or Jesus answered incorrectly answered the charge replying "mighty" or rulers" instead on "elohyim"

either way it is insulting to Jesus.

I choose option (3), which you do not list. Jesus was testing their Bible knowledge, and they failed miserably.

The OT word elohim, which is in the plural, can mean "judges," not just "gods." You've used Strong's dictionary, but that is not very reliable. BDB, the standard Hebrew lexicon, has "(plural) 1a) rulers, judges 1b) divine ones 1c) angels 1d) gods." The word was used in Ps. 82:6

However, the LXX (Septuagint translation) that the opponents of Jesus used had the Greek plural theoi, "gods," so Jesus was testing their knowledge. The actual meaning in Ps. 82:6 was "judges," and it is also used that way in Ex. 21:6 (and other verses): "Then his master shall bring him unto the judges."

 

[Yeshua1]

I choose option (3), which you do not list. Jesus was testing their Bible knowledge, and they failed miserably.

The OT word elohim, which is in the plural, can mean "judges," not just "gods." You've used Strong's dictionary, but that is not very reliable. BDB, the standard Hebrew lexicon, has "(plural) 1a) rulers, judges 1b) divine ones 1c) angels 1d) gods." The word was used in Ps. 82:6

However, the LXX (Septuagint translation) that the opponents of Jesus used had the Greek plural theoi, "gods," so Jesus was testing their knowledge. The actual meaning in Ps. 82:6 was "judges," and it is also used that way in Ex. 21:6 (and other verses): "Then his master shall bring him unto the judges."

It cannot mean as literal gods, for that would mean Benny Hinn is right, in that we are born again as little gods now...
I think that Jesus point was indeed they know not the scriptures nor God, for if mortal men who stood in for God as judges for Him could be called "gods", how much more the One who stands in as Judge for God who is also the Son of God be called God?

 

[loDebar]

I choose option (3), which you do not list. Jesus was testing their Bible knowledge, and they failed miserably.

The OT word elohim, which is in the plural, can mean "judges," not just "gods." You've used Strong's dictionary, but that is not very reliable. BDB, the standard Hebrew lexicon, has "(plural) 1a) rulers, judges 1b) divine ones 1c) angels 1d) gods." The word was used in Ps. 82:6

However, the LXX (Septuagint translation) that the opponents of Jesus used had the Greek plural theoi, "gods," so Jesus was testing their knowledge. The actual meaning in Ps. 82:6 was "judges," and it is also used that way in Ex. 21:6 (and other verses): "Then his master shall bring him unto the judges."

He was not using"judges"because He was quoting a verse that was not" judges". He was being accused of blasphemy and defending His teaching by showing scripture they knew and worshiped

Elohyim was used for religious judges in the formation of the tribes government in the OT In John., they are not being stated they are judges, because the are religious judges of Israel. It does not fit a adequate response to the accusation. So it really assumes Jesus was not aware, part of the inherit insult stated,Note they attempted to stone Him further.


Psalms 82 verse 1 shows elohyim in various forms

 

[loDebar]

And to say that it means 'gods' is to have Jesus claiming other men are also gods as He is God ... hence the confusion of many who read those words and struggle to honestly understand what Jesus' intended meaning was.

elohyim is used differently than only the Supreme God..We know God is "elohyim of elohyim" It is like a resident of Heaven while God is the ultimate Resident of Heaven

Deu 10:17

For the LORD your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:

This actually says Jehovah elohyim elohyim elohyim

Psa 8:5

For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels, { also elohyim} and hast crowned him with glory and honour.

 

[John of Japan]

He was not using"judges"because He was quoting a verse that was not" judges". He was being accused of blasphemy and defending His teaching by showing scripture they knew and worshiped

Once again, your poor syntax betrays you. "A verse that was not judges." What do you mean by that? I'm going to assume you are saying that elohim in Ps. 82:6 should not be translated "judges." Can you prove that? Do you know a single scholar who agrees with you?

V. 3 makes it plain that the elohim in v. 6 were judges: "Defend (Heb. "judge") the poor and fatherless: do justice to the afflicted and needy." Here is what the commentary by Keil and Delitzsch says on Ps. 82:6. "God Himself speaks in Psa_82:5 (v. 6--JoJ) of the judges, but reluctantly alienated from them; and confident of the futility of all attempts to make them better, He tells them their sentence in Psa_82:6" (v. 7--JoJ; vol. 5, p. 403).

Elohyim was used for religious judges in the formation of the tribes government in the OT In John., they are not being stated they are judges, because the are religious judges of Israel. It does not fit a adequate response to the accusation. So it really assumes Jesus was not aware, part of the inherit insult stated,Note they attempted to stone Him further.

I don't know what you are trying to say here. What do you mean by "It"?

You say that in John "they are not being stated they are judges." On the contrary, Jesus was directly comparing them to the unjust and unrighteous judges of Ps. 82. They were committing the same sins: judging unrighteously (Ps. 82:2), ignoring the poor and orphans (v.3), etc.

Psalms 82 verse 1 shows elohyim in various forms

V. 1 plays on two meanings of elohim: God Himself, and "the gods." Then v. 6 plays on those meanings with the meaning of "judge." The meaning in v. 6 cannot be idolatrous gods, which are not gods at all and are not even alive. (How would lifeless idols die, as per v. 7? I saw many idols in Japan of stone, brass, gold, etc.--they never even twitch, much less die. ) So it must be referring to human "gods," ie, judges, the other meaning of "gods." The Pharisees were clueless of all of this, and that is why they could not answer Jesus.

 

[atpollard]

There is a sense in which human judges are 'gods' (with a small g). If you will recall the time of Moses, someone with an 'issue' would go to one of Moses' appointed helpers to 'judge' the matter. If necessary, the matter could be taken to Moses himself (the man who spoke with GOD face to face). If Moses felt the matter required an even higher authority, GOD was available in the tent outside the camp to judge the matter Himself.

Under the theocracy, GOD allowed and expected men to stand in for GOD and pass righteous judgements of life and death on people as 'gods' standing in for the one true GOD. It is not an accident that the word for God, Angel and Judge is the same ... there is a real relationship implied and expected. So much greater was the sin of the corrupt Judges of Psalm 82 ... they had not only done evil to the people, they had slandered the name and honor of God by betraying a holy trust.

 

[loDebar]

There is a sense in which human judges are 'gods' (with a small g). If you will recall the time of Moses, someone with an 'issue' would go to one of Moses' appointed helpers to 'judge' the matter. If necessary, the matter could be taken to Moses himself (the man who spoke with GOD face to face). If Moses felt the matter required an even higher authority, GOD was available in the tent outside the camp to judge the matter Himself.

Under the theocracy, GOD allowed and expected men to stand in for GOD and pass righteous judgements of life and death on people as 'gods' standing in for the one true GOD. It is not an accident that the word for God, Angel and Judge is the same ... there is a real relationship implied and expected. So much greater was the sin of the corrupt Judges of Psalm 82 ... they had not only done evil to the people, they had slandered the name and honor of God by betraying a holy trust.

yes, there are 5 occasions where these spiritual judges are translated from elohyim, And rightly so, they are judging religious matters , by the leadership of the Holy Spirit

 

[loDebar]

Once again, your poor syntax betrays you. "A verse that was not judges." What do you mean by that? I'm going to assume you are saying that elohim in Ps. 82:6 should not be translated "judges." Can you prove that? Do you know a single scholar who agrees with you?


V. 3 makes it plain that the elohim in v. 6 were judges: "Defend (Heb. "judge") the poor and fatherless: do justice to the afflicted and needy." Here is what the commentary by Keil and Delitzsch says on Ps. 82:6. "God Himself speaks in Psa_82:5 (v. 6--JoJ) of the judges, but reluctantly alienated from them; and confident of the futility of all attempts to make them better, He tells them their sentence in Psa_82:6" (v. 7--JoJ; vol. 5, p. 403).
I don't know what you are trying to say here. What do you mean by "It"?

You say that in John "they are not being stated they are judges." On the contrary, Jesus was directly comparing them to the unjust and unrighteous judges of Ps. 82. They were committing the same sins: judging unrighteously (Ps. 82:2), ignoring the poor and orphans (v.3), etc.


V. 1 plays on two meanings of elohim: God Himself, and "the gods." Then v. 6 plays on those meanings with the meaning of "judge." The meaning in v. 6 cannot be idolatrous gods, which are not gods at all and are not even alive. (How would lifeless idols die, as per v. 7? I saw many idols in Japan of stone, brass, gold, etc.--they never even twitch, much less die. ) So it must be referring to human "gods," ie, judges, the other meaning of "gods." The Pharisees were clueless of all of this, and that is why they could not answer Jesus.

sorry for the syntax, I will try to show the points clearly

Certainly elohyim is translated "judges" about 5 times compared to the over 2200 times used.

In Psalms 82 God is speaking to the entire congregation in Heaven "of the elohyim" and called them elohyim again in v 6. Some elohyim were not included in this verse
Psa 82:7
But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes

"Judging" here in this chapter in verse 2 and 8 is directed at God , questioning allowing the evil to continue.

In John, He is referring to the human Jews who were arguing with Him, who are "elohyim" and not as the believers or "saved" as we use the term today.

To the same group He said a couple of chapters earlier :
Jhn 8:44
Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.

"it" is the inaccurate use of " gods" as "judges" in this conversation. As being accused of blasphemy, why would an all knowing God respond that the others were judges? It is changing the subject. We know they were well versed in scripture, understood the meaning and responded once again for blasphemy by attempting to stone him again.

"It" does not fit.

Verse 7 is the connection between "elohyim" and humans , the unbelieving Jews in John

 

[loDebar]

It is the same as the OP with this thread from Feb. We all agree as the truth for these verses but reject the resulted meaning and try to develop other explanations. Why?

Do we feel a need to have a answer for things we do not understand? I was thinking, when is the last time we heard a preacher or speaker say they do not understand but accept it anyway


Since we know : Jesus said
Jhn 5:22
"For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son:"

and we know: Jesus said
Jhn 8:15
"Ye judge after the flesh; I judge no man."

and we know: We are condemned already

Jhn 3:18¶
"He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God"

How am I condemned?

 

[atpollard]

Jhn 8:15
"Ye judge after the flesh; I judge no man."

Removing this verse from its context gives a false impression of its meaning.

It must be reconciled with these verses:
[Act 10:42 NASB] 42 "And He ordered us to preach to the people, and solemnly to testify that this is the One who has been appointed by God as Judge of the living and the dead.
[2Ti 4:1 NASB] 1 I solemnly charge you in the presence of God and of Christ Jesus, who is to judge the living and the dead, and by His appearing and His kingdom:
[1Pe 4:5 NASB] 5 but they will give account to Him who is ready to judge the living and the dead.

 

[atpollard]

How am I condemned?

HOW? Like this:

Matthew 25:31-46 NASB

31 “But when the Son of Man comes in His glory, and all the angels with Him, then He will sit on His glorious throne. 32 All the nations will be gathered before Him; and He will separate them from one another, as the shepherd separates the sheep from the goats; 33 and He will put the sheep on His right, and the goats on the left.

34 “Then the King will say to those on His right, ‘Come, you who are blessed of My Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world. 35 For I was hungry, and you gave Me something to eat; I was thirsty, and you gave Me something to drink; I was a stranger, and you invited Me in; 36 naked, and you clothed Me; I was sick, and you visited Me; I was in prison, and you came to Me.’ 37 Then the righteous will answer Him, ‘Lord, when did we see You hungry, and feed You, or thirsty, and give You something to drink? 38 And when did we see You a stranger, and invite You in, or naked, and clothe You? 39 When did we see You sick, or in prison, and come to You?’ 40 The King will answer and say to them, ‘Truly I say to you, to the extent that you did it to one of these brothers of Mine, even the least of them, you did it to Me.’

41 “Then He will also say to those on His left, ‘Depart from Me, accursed ones, into the eternal fire which has been prepared for the devil and his angels; 42 for I was hungry, and you gave Me nothing to eat; I was thirsty, and you gave Me nothing to drink; 43 I was a stranger, and you did not invite Me in; naked, and you did not clothe Me; sick, and in prison, and you did not visit Me.’ 44 Then they themselves also will answer, ‘Lord, when did we see You hungry, or thirsty, or a stranger, or naked, or sick, or in prison, and did not take care of You?’ 45 Then He will answer them, ‘Truly I say to you, to the extent that you did not do it to one of the least of these, you did not do it to Me.’ 46 These will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.”​

 

[loDebar]

Removing this verse from its context gives a false impression of its meaning.

It must be reconciled with these verses:
[Act 10:42 NASB] 42 "And He ordered us to preach to the people, and solemnly to testify that this is the One who has been appointed by God as Judge of the living and the dead.
[2Ti 4:1 NASB] 1 I solemnly charge you in the presence of God and of Christ Jesus, who is to judge the living and the dead, and by His appearing and His kingdom:
[1Pe 4:5 NASB] 5 but they will give account to Him who is ready to judge the living and the dead.

It is not out of context. please explain how it is wrong.

 

[loDebar]

HOW? Like this:

Matthew 25:31-46 NASB

31 “But when the Son of Man comes in His glory, and all the angels with Him, then He will sit on His glorious throne. 32 All the nations will be gathered before Him; and He will separate them from one another, as the shepherd separates the sheep from the goats; 33 and He will put the sheep on His right, and the goats on the left.

34 “Then the King will say to those on His right, ‘Come, you who are blessed of My Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world. 35 For I was hungry, and you gave Me something to eat; I was thirsty, and you gave Me something to drink; I was a stranger, and you invited Me in; 36 naked, and you clothed Me; I was sick, and you visited Me; I was in prison, and you came to Me.’ 37 Then the righteous will answer Him, ‘Lord, when did we see You hungry, and feed You, or thirsty, and give You something to drink? 38 And when did we see You a stranger, and invite You in, or naked, and clothe You? 39 When did we see You sick, or in prison, and come to You?’ 40 The King will answer and say to them, ‘Truly I say to you, to the extent that you did it to one of these brothers of Mine, even the least of them, you did it to Me.’

41 “Then He will also say to those on His left, ‘Depart from Me, accursed ones, into the eternal fire which has been prepared for the devil and his angels; 42 for I was hungry, and you gave Me nothing to eat; I was thirsty, and you gave Me nothing to drink; 43 I was a stranger, and you did not invite Me in; naked, and you did not clothe Me; sick, and in prison, and you did not visit Me.’ 44 Then they themselves also will answer, ‘Lord, when did we see You hungry, or thirsty, or a stranger, or naked, or sick, or in prison, and did not take care of You?’ 45 Then He will answer them, ‘Truly I say to you, to the extent that you did not do it to one of the least of these, you did not do it to Me.’ 46 These will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.”​

Look at the verse, He said He does not judge flesh and blood or, so how am I judged in these verses?

 

[atpollard]

It is not out of context. please explain how it is wrong.

Here is John 8:15 in the context of the entire paragraph containing the sentence:

John 8:12-20 NASB

12 Then Jesus again spoke to them, saying, “I am the Light of the world; he who follows Me will not walk in the darkness, but will have the Light of life.” 13 So the Pharisees said to Him, “You are testifying about Yourself; Your testimony is not true.” 14 Jesus answered and said to them, “Even if I testify about Myself, My testimony is true, for I know where I came from and where I am going; but you do not know where I come from or where I am going. 15 You judge according to the flesh; I am not judging anyone. 16 But even if I do judge, My judgment is true; for I am not alone in it, but I and the Father who sent Me. 17 Even in your law it has been written that the testimony of two men is [fn]true. 18 I am He who testifies about Myself, and the Father who sent Me testifies about Me.” 19 So they were saying to Him, “Where is Your Father?” Jesus answered, “You know neither Me nor My Father; if you knew Me, you would know My Father also.” 20 These words He spoke in the treasury, as He taught in the temple; and no one seized Him, because His hour had not yet come.
​

Respectfully, I will not spoon feed you. You will need to chew it for yourself.

Who is he talking to?
What are they accusing him of?
When does this occur?
Where is he?
Why is he talking with them?
How does this paragraph fit in with the Gospel narrative that John is carefully unfolding?

Then you can decide exactly what Jesus was saying in verse 15. [HINT: Jesus was not saying that He never judges anyone.]

[Act 10:42 NASB] 42 "And He ordered us to preach to the people, and solemnly to testify that this is the One who has been appointed by God as Judge of the living and the dead.
[2Timothy 4:1 NASB] 1 I solemnly charge you in the presence of God and of Christ Jesus, who is to judge the living and the dead, and by His appearing and His kingdom:
[1Peter 4:5 NASB] 5 but they will give account to Him who is ready to judge the living and the dead.

 

[atpollard]

so how am I judged in these verses?

Could you rephrase the question? I told you HOW judgement occurs, so you are not really looking for the mechanics of Judgement Day. I don't want to guess at what you really mean.

 

[loDebar]

Could you rephrase the question? I told you HOW judgement occurs, so you are not really looking for the mechanics of Judgement Day. I don't want to guess at what you really mean.

As a man, who condemned me?

 

[John of Japan]

sorry for the syntax, I will try to show the points clearly

Thank you.

Certainly elohyim is translated "judges" about 5 times compared to the over 2200 times used.

This proves nothing in relation to the passages in question. Because of the context, I consider the KJV to be mistaken in translating elohim as "gods." In the this the NASB ("rulers"), the K & D commentary ("judges"), and various other sources agree with me. You've not addressed my point in regards to the context of the whole psalm.

In Psalms 82 God is speaking to the entire congregation in Heaven "of the elohyim" and called them elohyim again in v 6. Some elohyim were not included in this verse
Psa 82:7
But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes

Are you actually saying that there are other "gods" besides the almighty God of the Bible? That the idols are actual "gods" rather than sculpted, un-moving statues with demons behind them? If this is what you are saying, there are so many things

"Judging" here in this chapter in verse 2 and 8 is directed at God , questioning allowing the evil to continue.

Really??? The "judge unjustly" of v. 2 refers to God almighty???

In John, He is referring to the human Jews who were arguing with Him, who are "elohyim" and not as the believers or "saved" as we use the term today.

No, Jesus does not call the human Jews questioning Him "elohim." That is a very mistaken way to exegete the passage. I dare you to find an exegete who agrees with you. Jesus is using an OT rendering from the LXX to see if they comprehend what God was saying and why He Himself was the Son of God.

To the same group He said a couple of chapters earlier :
Jhn 8:44
Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.

Irrelevant.

"it" is the inaccurate use of " gods" as "judges" in this conversation. As being accused of blasphemy, why would an all knowing God respond that the others were judges? It is changing the subject. We know they were well versed in scripture, understood the meaning and responded once again for blasphemy by attempting to stone him again.

"It" does not fit.

You've lost me again. I don't know what you are saying.

Verse 7 is the connection between "elohyim" and humans , the unbelieving Jews in John

Verse 7 of what? John or Psalm 82?

At any rate, look again at John 10:35--"If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came...." Jesus clearly stated that the "gods" being addressed in Psalm 82 were the Jews. Since there is no indication anywhere in the OT that the Jews were divine individually (plural "gods"), the possibilities are "rulers" (NASB) or "judges" (me and many others).

 

[loDebar]

Here is John 8:15 in the context of the entire paragraph containing the sentence:

John 8:12-20 NASB

12 Then Jesus again spoke to them, saying, “I am the Light of the world; he who follows Me will not walk in the darkness, but will have the Light of life.” 13 So the Pharisees said to Him, “You are testifying about Yourself; Your testimony is not true.” 14 Jesus answered and said to them, “Even if I testify about Myself, My testimony is true, for I know where I came from and where I am going; but you do not know where I come from or where I am going. 15 You judge according to the flesh; I am not judging anyone. 16 But even if I do judge, My judgment is true; for I am not alone in it, but I and the Father who sent Me. 17 Even in your law it has been written that the testimony of two men is [fn]true. 18 I am He who testifies about Myself, and the Father who sent Me testifies about Me.” 19 So they were saying to Him, “Where is Your Father?” Jesus answered, “You know neither Me nor My Father; if you knew Me, you would know My Father also.” 20 These words He spoke in the treasury, as He taught in the temple; and no one seized Him, because His hour had not yet come.
​

Respectfully, I will not spoon feed you. You will need to chew it for yourself.

Who is he talking to?
What are they accusing him of?
When does this occur?
Where is he?
Why is he talking with them?
How does this paragraph fit in with the Gospel narrative that John is carefully unfolding?

Then you can decide exactly what Jesus was saying in verse 15. [HINT: Jesus was not saying that He never judges anyone.]

[Act 10:42 NASB] 42 "And He ordered us to preach to the people, and solemnly to testify that this is the One who has been appointed by God as Judge of the living and the dead.
[2Timothy 4:1 NASB] 1 I solemnly charge you in the presence of God and of Christ Jesus, who is to judge the living and the dead, and by His appearing and His kingdom:
[1Peter 4:5 NASB] 5 but they will give account to Him who is ready to judge the living and the dead.

He did not say anyone, did He? He said " flesh and blood" . So what is the difference? You are condemned already.