Featured Atonement Continued

How?

In what manner can one member of the trinity forsake another member?

 

Ezekiel 18:4, ". . . the soul that sinneth, it shall die. . . ."
Romans 6:23, ". . . For the wages of sin is death; . . ."

Isaiah 53:12, ". . . he hath poured out his soul unto death: . . ."
Romans 5:8, ". . . Christ died for us. . . ."
1 Corinthians 15:3, ". . . that Christ died for our sins . . . ."

This is what is called and defined as the penal substitution atonement.

 

I hear your arguments. And I am failing to really understand them. The closest thing I can do is to simply premise PSA is not true and based on said premise not acknowdge any Scripture aruments alleged to support PSA as not supporting PSA.

 

for I am not ashamed of the good news (gospel see 1 Cor 15:1,3,4 for meaning) of the Christ, for it (That in parenthesis) is the power of God to salvation to every one who is believing, both to Jew first, and to Greek. For the righteousness of God in it (That in parenthesis) is revealed from faith to faith, according as it hath been written, 'And the righteous one* by (out of) faith shall live,' for revealed (?In all that preceding?) is the wrath of God from heaven upon all impiety and unrighteousness of men, holding down the truth in unrighteousness. Romans 1:16-18

Romans 5:6 For in our being still ailing, Christ in due time did die for (sake of) the impious;

* Did the one and only, righteous one, to come in the flesh, die, not have life, be in need of, out of faith to live? Jesus of Nazareth?
Acts 3:13-15 'The God of Abraham, and of Isaac, and of Jacob, the God of our fathers, did glorify His child Jesus, whom ye delivered up, and denied him in the presence of Pilate, he having given judgment to release him, and ye the Holy and Righteous One did deny, and desired a man -- a murderer -- to be granted to you, and the Prince of the life ye did kill, whom God did raise out of the dead, of which we are witnesses;

for revealed is the wrath of God from heaven upon all impiety and unrighteousness of men, holding down the truth in unrighteousness.

How was the wrath of God revealed?

 

How was the wrath of God revealed? is not the correct question here. It is against whom was it revealed and we see the answer in the text, "those who by their wickedness suppress the truth". The blood of Christ Jesus was the atonement for the sins of humanity and God accepted that blood as full payment.

Man reviled and hated Christ, man rejected Him, man crucified Him, man called for His blood but God accepted His blood as an expiation for our sins.

 

Here is where we need clearly defined terms. To be forsaken of God is not meaning He has left Him alone, as that's an impossibility, as God is omnipresent. What it means to be forsaken by God is for Him to remove His divine favor from Him. When Christ was forsaken by His Father, He was not absent from Calvary, but rather, His divine favor was lifted from His Son and they dealt with Him accordingly.

 

Then that aspect cannot be part of the atonement. Even though the perishing lost receive the unquenchable fire (Matthew 25:41), Christ did not give His soul to redeem the Devil or angels.

 

Actually Genesis 2:17. In Genesis 3 Eve tells the serpent what God told both Adam and Eve. She had not yet eaten of that tree. And it was the knowlege of good and evil for which they would die death (Genesis 3:22, Genesis 3:5). The serpent lied to Eve, Genesis 3:4, ". . . Ye shall not surely die: . . ." Therefore murdering Adam and Eve (John 8:44, ". . . . He was a murderer from the beginning, . . ."). So all decendants of Adam and Eve would be conceved in sin and therefore be born sinners. Christ was not conceved in sin by reason that knowledge was of His divine nature (Luke 18:19, John 1:10, Genesis 3:22).

 

This is off topic and I know it is, but I am having a very difficult time locating a verse in the Bible.

Can anyone find that verse that states that humanity owes a debt to God?

Again, this isn't pertaining to the thread, but my own vain search and making an appeal for a bit of help.

I can find the verses for "require" such as Micah 6:8.

I looked over what the internet offers and such as desire verses are shown. Here is a group listed by: What Does the Bible Say About God Desires Us?

But to no avail am I finding anything that states "humans owe a debt to God."

Any help is appreciated!

 

While not EXPLICIT, Romans 1 is clearly IMPLICIT that those condemned SHOULD have done what they did not do:

18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who suppress the truth in unrighteousness, 19 because what may be known of God is manifest in them, for God has shown it to them. 20 For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even His eternal power and Godhead, so that they are without excuse, 21 because, although they knew God, they did not glorify Him as God, nor were thankful, but became futile in their thoughts, and their foolish hearts were darkened. 22 Professing to be wise, they became fools, 23 and changed the glory of the incorruptible God into an image made like corruptible man—and birds and four-footed animals and creeping things.​

Men owe God respect and gratitude, a debt for the shortfall.

 

Either you did not understand the distinction on how Christ is a subsitute for the lost and not the devil and angels or you did and we do not agree. Or I am not understanding your "I agree."

 

Matthew 25:41.