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Baptism in the Name of Jesus Christ?

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1689Dave

Well-Known Member
Not sure I could agree with that, but always glad to learn something new, so would be glad to look at the Scripture you feel supports that. I look at it like this, the Name Jesus was given to the Christ when He manifested in human form. That form has a beginning in time, though the Son is Eternal God.

Consider:

Revelation 3:12
King James Version (KJV)

12 Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name.



I look at the Eternal State to be the time when revelation will be full, meaning, we will know all things at that time. In the Eternal State there will be a physical existence, a new heavens and earth (universe), but, there will still be...Heaven, God's abode. I think New Jerusalem bridges the two, but Heaven will remain distinct as it is now.

And by the way, welcome to the forum, I hope your time here will be blessed and that you in turn will be a blessing to those here.


God bless.
I think this is all future and highly symbolic. The simple truth is that Peter understood Jesus' command the way he did and baptized in Jesus' name. I think the catholics changed it to waht is now common in the 2nd century.
 

1689Dave

Well-Known Member
Except they don't! All baptism today (biblical baptism) is done due to the authority given to the church to baptize. It has nothing to do with saying magic words. It has to do with the authority given to the church in the Great Commission.
But your theory is too complex. Nobody would interpret it your way unless they were indoctrinated to do so.
 

Darrell C

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Doesn't change the fact that prior to God forming that body in the womb of Mary, the Name Jesus (given to that form) was unknown to men.
What part of "Jehovah is Salvation" (Greek: Ἰησοῦς - English: Jesus) didn't you understand?

The part where you impose into Joshua something that took place at the beginning of the First Century.

[Personal attack edited]

If you want to truly discuss this issue, then you will address the Scripture and the points presented to you, starting with this:


Hebrews 4:8
King James Version (KJV)

8 For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.



Is the name of Jesus in this verse or the Name of Jesus.

Answer.


Just because the name existed, doesn't mean the Name existed, just as the form did not previously exist.
So Jehovah is not a Name, just a name?

This is the exact opposite of what I pointed out.

The Name of Jesus was not known to men until the beginning of the First Century.

While men knew a number of "Joshuas," it is really quite easy to distinguish between them. I have given you a passage where you can test whether you are able or not.

And in case you were not aware, there is a difference between Jehovah and "Jehovah saves."

Do you ever actually address what people say?


When God manifested in physical form unto Abraham in Genesis 18...it was not the form created in Mary's womb that the Eternal Son of God took up residence in.

Of course it was.

Great, now if you only had Scripture to back that up. [Personal attack edited]

Luke 1:30-31
King James Version (KJV)

30 And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favour with God.

31 And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name Jesus.



So tell me, did the Son of God remain in a physical body from Genesis 18 until the Incarnation? Or that form set on a shelf until needed?


Jesus went from earth into Eternity at the Ascension then from Eternity to earth in the days of Abraham.

Got that backwards, don't you?

From eternity to the plains of Mamre to eternity again, and from eternity to the womb of Mary, to the Cross, and then to Eternity again.


Hebrews 10
King James Version (KJV)


5 Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me:

6 In burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin thou hast had no pleasure.

7 Then said I, Lo, I come (in the volume of the book it is written of me,) to do thy will, O God.



The Writer also uses katartizō here...


Hebrews 11
King James Version (KJV)

3 Through faith we understand that the worlds were framed by the word of God, so that things which are seen were not made of things which do appear.



But really, after you address these passages, I would love to see the Scripture by which you support that the Body Jesus Christ died in has always existed.

I did not know you believed God has always been a man.

The Bible I study from teaches...


Philippians 2:5-7
King James Version (KJV)

5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:

6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:





Just how many physical bodies do you think Jesus had?

He had one, because as I said, Jesus Christ has a beginning in time, whereas the Son is Eternal. That body taken upon Himself by which He communed with Adam and Abraham is not the Body created in the womb of Mary. The Name of Jesus the Christ was not given among men until revealed to Mary.

So while you might equate Joshua to Jesus, I do not, and the Scriptures do not.


God bless.
 
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Darrell C

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
:)
I am just trying to help you move past the ole Dispy teaching brother!:)

You mean you want me to learn how to go around making one sentence statements that are usually in error?

I think I'll pass, but thanks for thinking of me!


God bless.
 

Darrell C

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I think this is all future and highly symbolic. The simple truth is that Peter understood Jesus' command the way he did and baptized in Jesus' name. I think the catholics changed it to waht is now common in the 2nd century.

Well, let me ask you this: do you think that being Baptized in the Name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost impacts the salvation of those being baptized?


God bless.
 

1689Dave

Well-Known Member
Well, let me ask you this: do you think that being Baptized in the Name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost impacts the salvation of those being baptized?


God bless.
Not at all. But I think we've got it wrong thanks to the Catholics. And they also weighted us down with a lot more baggage if we start comparing our worship to theirs.
 

Revmitchell

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
But your theory is too complex. Nobody would interpret it your way unless they were indoctrinated to do so.

What are you talking about, everybody interprets it that way. With the exception of a few thick skulls on this board everyone I know interprets it that way.
 

1689Dave

Well-Known Member
What are you talking about, everybody interprets it that way. With the exception of a few thick skulls on this board everyone I know interprets it that way.
I would need to be taught your position because it makes plain scripture say something entirely different than what it does. But a simple reading of the scriptures knowing Peter baptized in Jesus' name is obvious and effortless.
 

Revmitchell

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I would need to be taught your position because it makes plain scripture say something entirely different than what it does. But a simple reading of the scriptures knowing Peter baptized in Jesus' name is obvious and effortless.

there is no difference
 

TCassidy

Late-Administator Emeritus
Administrator
But your theory is too complex.
It is neither a theory nor is it complex. It is what the bible says. Matt 28:18 Jesus came to them and spoke to them, saying, “All authority has been given to me in heaven and on earth.

Nobody would interpret it your way unless they were indoctrinated to do so.
Anyone with a 4th grade level of reading comprehension and sufficient vocabulary to understand what "authority" means would find it quite simple to understand.
 

Revmitchell

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I'm sorry, but it makes plain scripture say something it does not say.


at 28:19 R10Go therefore and R11make disciples of R12all nations, R10baptizing them R13inN1 R14the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,
 

1689Dave

Well-Known Member
It is neither a theory nor is it complex. It is what the bible says. Matt 28:18 Jesus came to them and spoke to them, saying, “All authority has been given to me in heaven and on earth.

Anyone with a 4th grade level of reading comprehension and sufficient vocabulary to understand what "authority" means would find it quite simple to understand.
It is way out of reach for the average bible reader. You make scripture say something it doesn't even come close to saying. But so do the Catholics [False personal attack edited].
 
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Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Not at all. But I think we've got it wrong thanks to the Catholics. And they also weighted us down with a lot more baggage if we start comparing our worship to theirs.
Do you think the great Commission formula was given to us?
 
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