You are getting the means mixed up. John baptized people INTO water, so it was WITH water as opposed to WITH the Spirit. Jesus baptizes you WITH the spirit into the body, so it is WITH the Spirit as opposed to with water. Because of the unity of the Godhead, you can also say that it is BY the Spirit --using simply Himself! (No, water is not what the Spirit baptizes with, but nice try!)The one body is what we are baptized "into", not what we're baptized "with".
The apostles were baptized "with" the Holy Ghost "by" Jesus.
Many were baptized "with" water "by" John.
So again, if one interprets 1 Cor 12:13 as though the Holy Spirit is doing the baptizing, then he must identify the medium in which the Spirit baptizes us "into" the one body.
Are you saying it is only separate IF my view is true, (and is "one" in your view where the water ceremony marks salvation?) If not; then how do you avoid "two baptisms" if they are separate?No, immersion in water is a form of the death, burial, and resurrection of Christ (Rom 6:17). It IS a real baptism totally separate and apart from the baptism of the Holy Spirit, with a completely different purpose, and thus makes TWO baptisms, when Paul said years after Acts 10 that there is only "one baptism" (Eph 4:5).
"one baptism" goes with "one Lord" and "one faith", and the "one body" and the "unity of" the "one Spirit" (v.3), under "one God, the father of all" (v.6). So it means there is no valid baptism into any other [spiritual] "body". IT is not differentiating between physical and spiritual MODES of baptism; because both concern Christ, the one Lord, and the one body.
It would be the Holy Spirit, all right, but that is NOT the "baptism by the Spirit". Being baptized in water is not "baptism by the Spirit" because it is "according to the teaching of the Spirit"; but because it SYMBOLIZED what was taking place spiritually.Who would you say inspired Peter and the rest of the apostles to preach and teach immersion in water for the remission of sins then?
This was answered, in what you next quoted, where I discuss the "old man" dying and being reborn on conversion (which is when he is baptized spiritually into the body).Who would you say inspired Peter and the rest of the apostles to preach and teach immersion in water for the remission of sins then?
The baptism Paul spoke of is described as a burial and raising up again (Rom 6:3-5; Col 2:12), and "that form of doctrine which was delivered you" (Rom 6:17).
Let's compare. When one supposedly receives the baptism of the Holy Spirit, is he buried in the Spirit and then raised up out of the Spirit? Be honest! That doesn't make a lick of sense, does it?
Now, when one is baptized in water, is he buried in the water and then raised up out of the water? Why yes, I'd have to say that's how it happens.
It seems quite logical to me that only water baptism fits the description given by the apostle Paul, and performed in several conversion accounts in Acts.
And in the same response, I made an allowance that it was not only baptism, but "the water AND something else ("faith", sincerity, genuine conversion of the heart, etc)". Still, as I concluded, "then it is ultimately not the water ceremony that is saving, but rather those spiritual things!" As you have shown, God has allowed for people to be saved without baptism, but He has not allowed for people to be saved without faith. So you cannot make them equal.I'm not sure where you are getting the idea that I am espousing salvation by "baptism only". That would be as false as preaching salvation by "faith only".
I've stated several times that faith and repentance are prerequisites to baptism. And whether you see baptism as merely a "water ceremony" or not, it's still commanded by God in order to obtain the remission of sins.
Your examples of how God used physical means to accompany, initiate and/or represent or symbolize spiritual truths is close to the truth. But what you miss, is that that was the OC, hence; what I said about the physical preceding the spiritual (which you turned around:QUOTE]You all are getting closer to the truth now.
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It's what we've been saying all along. How is it we're getting closer?
I was talking about typology, and the transition between covenants. If baptism actually preceded the washing of sins, then you are suggesting it was the cause of it; which you are elsewhere tying to deny. But it was either simultaneous, or the baptism was carried on later (whenever possible).You make my point for me. The symbolic, or physical (baptism in water) precedes, or comes before the real, or spiritual (washing of sins, salvation). I couldn't have said it better myself.
The conversion on the spot was marked by the baptism on the spot. The baptism was just an act of obedience that made a testimony of acceptance of Christ. So refusing would amount to a public rejection of Christ. Since no one can see what has gone on in the heart, baptism to the outside world would be the moment of conversion, even though there may have been some time inbetween their actual acceptance and the ceremony. But by today things have changed, and baptism almost never occurs that quickly. But we cannot say their sins are not washed away until they are. (Hence Michael's question, above).Didn't you just say their sins were already washed away ("converted on the spot")? Who would even believe if they didn't see their need of having their sins washed away?
and the Church of Christ and all other Campbellistic groups are apart of this "denominationalism", even though they speak against it. Frank says he baptizes on the spot, but I don't think they all do. Especially since they believe they are the only true group, and they differ from orthodoxy in this and other areas. Don't they have to initiate people into their Church before they are baptized? Even for Frank, Michael's question still stands. What if there is no water available for the time being?That's the root of the problem of denominationalism. The introduction of things not authorized by Scripture. There is no "Christendom" in the Bible. Only the church.