ntchristian
Active Member
I see it as a deniable fact, since the New Testament teaches it. It is the authority not so called church fathers.
I appealed to Isaiah 53. John 12:38 and Romans 10:16.
Please do me this favor, present what you understand using a few clear texts of Scripture and deemed needed contexts. Like I have, such as Isaiah 53:6 and Isaiah 53:12 or how you thint it is to be better done. Thanks.
See, this is the problem in trying to interpret scripture apart from context. You come up with a meaning that was never there, that the authors of the scripture didn't intend and the first readers of it didn't see. So, the question is, if the NT teaches it as you maintain, why didn't the early church see it there? Why did it take 1500 years for someone to see it there? The reason is because it took 1500 years for anyone to read the NT with the mindset that Calvin and Luther had -- a legalist, rationalist mindset that was absent in the early church.
Further, a doctrine that was an expansion of the RCC Satisfaction theory, itself invented 1000 years after Christ, should be suspect and discarded on that basis alone.
See my post in the PSA thread for links dealing with Isaiah 53 and PSA.
One short and simple scripture support for my atonement view is where Jesus said that He came to give His life as a ransom.