Robert William, you stated that " nowhere in the Bible does it say that Christian water baptism as salvific.
Matt. 28:19-20 - Jesus commands the apostles to baptize all people "in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit."
But not for salvation.
Acts 2:38 - Peter commands them to repent and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ in order to be actually forgiven of sin, not just to partake of a symbolic ritual.
No, actually, he doesn't.
If I say, "We're having a party for my wife's birthday", does that mean that we have to have a party in order for her to have a birthday? Of course not! It means we're having a party in commemoration of her birthday. Otherwise, all we would have to do is to not have a birthday party and she would never age.
In the case of Acts 2:38,
eis has several meanings, just as our word, "for" has.
In can mean "in order to obtain" (e.g. "I'll give you two hundred dollars for that bureau"). It can also mean to commemorate, such as in the example I just showed you.
Based on the harmony of scripture, we see people being saved without being baptized. Abraham, the thief on the cross, Cornelius (Cornelius was later baptized, but received the Holy Spirit before he was baptized) so we know it cannot be the former. Because we see that no unsaved person was baptized in scripture, we have to assume that it's the latter.
Matt. 28:19-20; Acts 2:38 - there is nothing in these passages or elsewhere in the Bible about baptism being symbolic.
Nor is there anything that says it's salvific.
There is also nothing about just accepting Jesus as personal Lord and Savior in order to be saved.
Straw man.
Mark 16:16 - Jesus said "He who believes AND is baptized will be saved." Jesus says believing is not enough. Baptism is also required. This is because baptism is salvific, not just symbolic. The Greek text also does not mandate any specific order for belief and baptism, so the verse proves nothing about a “believer’s baptism.”
I don't blame you for not posting the whole verse.
Look at the corollary: Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved,
but whoever does not believe will be condemned.
If baptism is what saves, then why doesn't the verse say that whoever is not baptized will be condemned?
For instance, if not being baptized condemns, then why is Abraham not condemned? He wasn't baptized. Why isn't the thief on the cross condemned? He wasn't baptized. How did Cornelius receive the Holy Spirit when he was still condemned?
No, the verse doesn't say those who aren't baptized are condemned. You're assuming that because that's what your religion teaches but, in so doing, you commit the fallacy of negative inference.
Jesus connects baptism with belief, which we know from other places in scripture, is what actually saves us, but doesn't connect the lack of baptism to condemnation. Why?
Mark 16:16 does not say one must be baptized to be saved. It states that baptized believers will be saved, but says nothing about believers who have not been baptized. So are believers who have not been baptized saved?
Jesus mentions a condition related to salvation (baptism) but a related condition should not be confused with a requirement. For instance, having a fever is related to being ill, but a fever is not required for one to be ill. Nowhere in the Bible do we find a statement such as “whoever is not baptized will be condemned.” Therefore, you cannot reasonably find salvation by baptism in that passage.