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Being slain in the Spirit?

Ray Berrian

New Member
Bible-boy,

You said, '2) The passage no where uses the phrase "slain in the Spirit" to describe what happened to John. Additionally, John's testimony recorded in this passage makes it clear that he was in the manifest presence of the exalted Lord Jesus Christ. Nowhere does the text indicate that the Holy Spirit, the third person of the Triune Godhead, had also manifested His presence. The text only indicates that the exalted Lord Jesus was present. Therefore, why would it be acceptable to state that the presence of the Holy Spirit caused John to fall?'

I agree that I was not clear in that it might have sounded like those who fall under the power of the Spirit also have the ability of Divine inspiration to write new books of the Bible. However, often I have said on this board that the canon of Scripture is forever closed. Just for a point of clarity . . .

Both things are stated in the Word. John did see the Lord in all of His beauty and wonder but 1:10 also says that the apostle was '. . . in the Spirit on the Lord's Day.' We do agree that the Spirit is the Holy Spirit, right? The Holy Spirit did not duck out or withdraw while John was in this unique rapture with the living God.

In vs. 10 first John speaks of being in the Holy Spirit and only down in vs. 11 is there the voice of the Lord. Wherever the Holy Spirit is manifest, there too are to be found the Father and the Son. We do not divide the Essence of God if we are Trinitarian.

I don't think you want to say that in vs. 17 that Jesus was there and the Holy Spirit and God the Father were having a private conversation together in Heaven until Jesus returned.

The bottom line is people who fall under the power of God experience the same thing as the Apostle John did in this first chapter of Revelation.

Some of us Christians have experience this but are not given new revelations of truth. The canon is closed!! And yet if you asked each person their personal experience in God--it might vary; I cannot tell you what other saved people have experienced. That is between them and the Lord.
But to deny this experience is like me telling you that you do not know you are saved. You know because in some way your life has experienced the result of your personal salvation. Plus, you have your own salvation story to tell saints and sinners alike
.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
John fell at his feet, indicating a postition of prostration, worship and adoration as any Jew would have done.
The opposite is shown in the Book of Esther where Mordecai refused to bow to Haman because it was a mark of honor and exaltation. He would give honor and exaltation to God alone, not to an ungodly man like Haman. Please don't tell me that Mordecai was trying to refrain from bending or falling backwards.
Please don't tell me that John fell backwards, arms flailing all over the place, body uncontrollable as in a demonn-possessed person--that which you see in most Charismatic circles, and on the stage of Benny Hinn.
No! John reverently, and in reverential awe and fear fell before the feet of Jesus. That is something entirely the opposite of modern day "slain if the spirit" which is more likely to be of another spirit, not the Holy Spirit of God.
DHK
 

Ray Berrian

New Member
DHK,

You said, 'Please don't tell me that John fell backwards, arms flailing all over the place, body uncontrollable as in a demonn-possessed person.'

You sound as though you have been around people who were demon possessed who acted in a strange way. How many cases have you experience where a person was demon possessed? :eek: Where did you see these people who were controlled by the evil one? Who delivered these people that you have witnessed in such a state of being? :(

With all due respect we await your reply.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Originally posted by Ray Berrian:
DHK,

You said, 'Please don't tell me that John fell backwards, arms flailing all over the place, body uncontrollable as in a demonn-possessed person.'
That is true. Some are in the Charismatic movement, but not all. Many are just induced into a self-hypnotic state. You see this a lot on the Benny Hinn farce.
You sound as though you have been around people who were demon possessed who acted in a strange way. How many cases have you experience where a person was demon possessed? :eek: Where did you see these people who were controlled by the evil one? Who delivered these people that you have witnessed in such a state of being? :(
In truth I have been around many cases of people that have been demon possessed, and even now know some that are still demon-possessed. But that is not the subject of this thread. I have encountered such both in third world countries and also here in Canada. It is not as uncommon as some may think.
With all due respect we await your reply.
You have it.
DHK
 

Ray Berrian

New Member
DHK,

You said, '. . . and even now know some that are still demon-possessed.'

Do you have a chart on which is the criterion for demon possession or some kind of a meter so when a person commits so many sins, they are then placed on your demon possessed list?

Does falling out under the power of the Holy Spirit, in your mind, add up to a person having at least one demon?

I would love to see stand before Rev. Hinn and have him bless you in the Name of the Lord. Your theory would be dropped by the wayside, when you were 'slain in the Spirit.' Then you could help is find a new name for this event that would please your liking.

Do any of your demon possessed people attend Christian churches? Do you think we should speak of all sinners as being demon possessed? I really want to know what you think about this last question
.
applause.gif
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
This thread is not about demon possession, suffice it to say that some people who speak in tongues and/or are slain in the spirit do so under the power of demons.
DHK
 

music4Him

New Member
Originally posted by DHK:
This thread is not about demon possession, suffice it to say that some people who speak in tongues and/or are slain in the spirit do so under the power of demons.
DHK
This kind of remarks stir the pot..... But hey you want to tag every person who speak in tongues and/or are slain in the spirit with demon possession. :rolleyes: So I have gotten used to it and my hide has gotten alot thicker.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Originally posted by music4Him:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by DHK:
This thread is not about demon possession, suffice it to say that some people who speak in tongues and/or are slain in the spirit do so under the power of demons.
DHK
This kind of remarks stir the pot..... But hey you want to tag every person who speak in tongues and/or are slain in the spirit with demon possession. :rolleyes: So I have gotten used to it and my hide has gotten alot thicker.
</font>[/QUOTE]False accusations are not needed. Read what I said. Then make a more intelligent response.
 

music4Him

New Member
some people who speak in tongues and/or are slain in the spirit do so under the power of demons

False accusations are not needed? Did you not say that? Talk about a need for an intelligent response. :rolleyes:

I have seen people get "slain" in the Spirit. But I prefer another word besides "slain" .....possibly overcome to the point of fainting would be a start.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Originally posted by music4Him:


False accusations are not needed? Did you not say that? Talk about a need for an intelligent response.
No I did not.
Here is a parallel.
DHK said: "Some Americans believe that the Stealers will win the Super Bowl."

Music4Him quoted DHK as saying: "DHK said 'ALL Americans believe that the Stealers will win the Superbowl.'"

I hope that you can see the difference, and quit with the slander.
DHK
 

music4Him

New Member
Slandering?????? I'm not the one trying to make a mountian out of a mole hill here.
laugh.gif


If people happen to get overcome by the Holy Spirit when being prayed for, who is anyone to judge and say its demon possession.

Selah~
Music4Him
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Originally posted by music4Him:
Slandering?????? I'm not the one trying to make a mountian out of a mole hill here.
laugh.gif


If people happen to get overcome by the Holy Spirit when being prayed for, who is anyone to judge and say its demon possession.

Selah~
Music4Him
Why?
Because:
#1. First of all none of it is of the Holy Spirit.
#2. No doubt most of it is either psycological, or in the case of large crusades such as Benny Hinn, much of it has to do with crowd hypnosis.
#3. In some cases both speaking in tongues and being slain in the spirit is a direct result of demonic activity.
DHK
 

music4Him

New Member
Well thats your opinion..........

But what if your wrong? :eek:
I don't follow Benny Hinn so I don't know about hipnosis.

#3. In "some" cases both speaking in tongues and being slain in the spirit is a direct result of demonic activity.

Explain this statement you made DHK..... are you saying that in "some" cases its not demonic activity to speak in tongues or to be slain in the spirit?
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Originally posted by music4Him:

Explain this statement you made DHK..... are you saying that in "some" cases its not demonic activity to speak in tongues or to be slain in the spirit?
Yes, of course. That is why I took issue with your previous statements. It is possible that some people who speak in tongues do so through demons. If you read my previous points I said otherwise it is simply a psychological phenomena, nothing to do with demons at all.

Paul recognized the demon activiity involved. That is what he was speaking of in 1Cor.12:1-3:

1 Corinthians 12:1-3 Now concerning spiritual gifts, brethren, I would not have you ignorant.
2 Ye know that ye were Gentiles, carried away unto these dumb idols, even as ye were led.
3 Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and that no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Ghost.

What was happening here? How could beleivers at Corinth call Jesus accursed? Were they believers? It was an epistle written to the saints at Corinth. Even the first verse of this chapter addreses them as my brethren.
Some of the brethren were going back into their pagan ways (verse 2) and imitating the power of tongues that they had in their pagan idolatry. They wanted the showy "spiritual" (so-called) gift at any cost. They faked it, and consequently and unknowingly allowed Satan to work through them. They were speaking in another language, by another spirit, calling Jesus accursed. It wasn't gibberish. It was a real language. They were under the power and influence of Satan, calling Christ accursed. This was not the work of the Holy Spirit, Paul says, but another spirit. It was demonic activity, something they had previously encountered in their pagan past that Paul warned them of.
DHK
 

music4Him

New Member
quote by DHK:
---------------------------------------------------
Yes, of course. That is why I took issue with your previous statements. It is possible that some people who speak in tongues do so through demons. If you read my previous points I said otherwise it is simply a psychological phenomena, nothing to do with demons at all.
---------------------------------------------------

In other words are you not still saying anyone who speaks in tongues or is "slain" in the Spirit is a psychological phenomena (not Spiritual as from the Holy Spirit) or possibley demon possesed?
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Concerning both tongues and being slain of the Spirit:
1. None of it is of the Holy Spirit.
2. Most of it is a psychological phenomena (nothing to do with any spirit, only self or purely a carnal experience).
3. Some of it may be of a demonic nature as explained in 1Cor.12:1-3
I hope that makes it clear.
DHK
 
T

TaterTot

Guest
I know DHK has taken the heat for his stance, but I think he is right.
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Bible-boy

Active Member
Originally posted by Ray Berrian:
I agree that I was not clear in that it might have sounded like those who fall under the power of the Spirit also have the ability of Divine inspiration to write new books of the Bible. However, often I have said on this board that the canon of Scripture is forever closed. Just for a point of clarity . . .
Yes, but that still does not address the problem with your using this passage to support the charismatic belief in being “slain in the Spirit.”

What is the problem? It is the fact that the text tells us that John was “in the Spirit” and the text makes it clear to us that John was in this state for a specific reason; namely, for the purpose of receiving Divine revelation for the recording of God’s Word.

However, according to your own statements when charismatic believers are “slain in the Spirit” they are not receiving Divine revelation for the purpose of additional recording of God’s Word.

Therefore, the biblical account of John’s experience in the Book of Revelation does not directly equate to the experience of modern day charismatic believers. So in the quoted passage (Rev. 1:9-18) we do not find a biblical account that corresponds to the modern charismatic experience of being “slain in the Spirit” in a direct one to one type of evidential relationship.
Originally posted by Ray Berrian:
Both things are stated in the Word. John did see the Lord in all of His beauty and wonder but 1:10 also says that the apostle was '. . . in the Spirit on the Lord's Day.' We do agree that the Spirit is the Holy Spirit, right? The Holy Spirit did not duck out or withdraw while John was in this unique rapture with the living God.
Yes, we agree that the Spirit being discussed in Rev. 1:10 is the Holy Spirit. However, If we follow the use of this terminology, “in the Spirit,” throughout the Bible we see that it refers to a special state of being whereby the progressive revelation of God’s Word was recorded by the Prophets and the Apostles. We see it again when John explains how he was shown the throne room of heaven (Rev. 4:2). The text says:
“After this I looked, and behold, a door standing in heaven! And the first voice, which I heard speaking to me like a trumpet, said, ‘Come up here, and I will show you what must take place after this.’ At once I was in the Spirit, and behold, a throne stood in heaven, with one seated on the throne” (Rev. 4:1-2, ESV).
Again, John was placed in some type of state where he either literally saw things in heaven, or was given a Divine vision of things in heaven. Why was he placed in this state? He was specifically receiving the progressive revelation and subsequent recording of God’s Word.

Next we see the terminology used in Rev. 17:3. The text says:
“And he carried me away in the Spirit into a wilderness, and I saw a woman sitting on a scarlet beast that was full of blasphemous names, and it had seven heads and ten horns” (Rev. 17:3, ESV).
Here again John is placed in some kind of special state, carried away, and shown something. Why? He was receiving the continued progressive revelation and subsequent recording of God’s Word.

Next we see the terminology used in Rev. 21:10. The text says:
“Then came one of the seven angels who had the seven bowls full of the seven last plagues and spoke to me, saying, ‘Come, I will show you the Bride, the wife of the Lamb.’ And he carried me away in the Spirit to a great, high mountain, and showed me the holy city Jerusalem coming down out of heaven from God…” (Rev. 21:9-10, ESV).
Here again John is placed in some kind of special state, carried away, and shown something. Why? He was receiving the continued progressive revelation and subsequent recording of God’s Word.

Additionally, we see Jesus use the exact same terminology when referring to David’s recording of Psalm 110:1. Jesus says:
“He said to them, ‘How is it then that David, in the Spirit, calls him Lord, saying, “‘The Lord said to my Lord, Sit at my right hand, until I put your enemies under your feet?’” (Matt. 22:43-44, ESV).
Interestingly, Psalm 110:1 does not say that David was “in the Spirit.” However, Jesus tells that David was in the Spirit when he (David) recorded this verse. So why was David “in the Spirit” here? He was receiving the continued progressive revelation and subsequent recording of God’s Word.

After tracing the use of the phrase, “in the Spirit,” throughout the Bible I must conclude that it is used to describe a specific special state of being in which the OT Prophets and the NT Apostles where placed for the purpose of receiving the continued progressive revelation and subsequent recording of God’s Word.
You admit that when charismatic believers are “slain in the Spirit” they are not receiving the continued progressive revelation of God’s Word.

Therefore, the passage in Rev. 1:10 can not be used as a proof text for the charismatic belief in being “slain in the Spirit” because clearly the text is not referring to the exact same kind of experience. In effect you are comparing apples to oranges with the only connection being that the biblical text and your stated belief both use the word “Spirit.”
Originally posted by Ray Berrian:
In vs. 10 first John speaks of being in the Holy Spirit and only down in vs. 11 is there the voice of the Lord. Wherever the Holy Spirit is manifest, there too are to be found the Father and the Son. We do not divide the Essence of God if we are Trinitarian.
I am not dividing the essence of God. I fully hold to the doctrine of traditional orthodox Christian Trinitarian Monotheism. However, the text in question does not say that when John had his Divine vision/experience that the Holy Spirit had manifested His presence. Going by the uses noted above the phrase “in the Spirit” is used to denote a special state of being in which the OT Prophets and the NT Apostles where placed for the purpose of receiving the continued progressive revelation and subsequent recording of God’s Word. Finally, the text does say that John was in the manifest presence of the exalted Lord Jesus Christ.
Originally posted by Ray Berrian:
I don't think you want to say that in vs. 17 that Jesus was there and the Holy Spirit and God the Father were having a private conversation together in Heaven until Jesus returned.
Nope… that is not what I am saying. All I am saying is that in Rev. 1:17 while Jesus was speaking to John, God the Father and Holy Spirit did not manifest their presence. Were all three persons of the Triune Godhead present? Yes. Did John know that all were present? No, not according to the text, he only says that the exalted Lord Jesus Christ was there. Why? Because God the Father and the Holy Spirit did not reveal (manifest) their presence to him.
Originally posted by Ray Berrian:
The bottom line is people who fall under the power of God experience the same thing as the Apostle John did in this first chapter of Revelation.
Not according to the biblical texts I quoted above and not according to your own statements. The charismatic believers who experience being “slain in the Spirit” do not experience the same thing as the Apostle John did in the first chapter of Revelation because they do not receive the continued progressive revelation of God’s Word. Therefore, the experiences are vastly different.
Originally posted by Ray Berrian:
Some of us Christians have experience this but are not given new revelations of truth. The canon is closed!! And yet if you asked each person their personal experience in God--it might vary; I cannot tell you what other saved people have experienced. That is between them and the Lord.
Nope! None of you have experienced what the Apostle John experienced because you did not receive the continued progressive revelation of God’s Word. Why? Because the canon of Scripture is closed. God is finished progressively revealing Himself and His Word in that manner. You all may have experienced something. However, you have not yet demonstrated, from the text of the Bible, conclusively just what these experiences really were.
Originally posted by Ray Berrian:
But to deny this experience is like me telling you that you do not know you are saved.
No one is asking you to deny that you had some kind of experience. All I am saying is that the experience you describe does not line up the experience recorded in the Bible that you are trying to use as a proof text. Therefore, you have to admit that you experienced something, you don’t know for certain based upon the objective truth of the Bible what happened, you think you know what happened, but you haven’t proven your hypothesis based on the sure testimony of God’s Word.

Originally posted by Ray Berrian:
You know because in some way your life has experienced the result of your personal salvation. Plus, you have your own salvation story to tell saints and sinners alike.
My salvation does not depend on my experience. I would be in real trouble if it did. My salvation is rooted in and depends solely on the fact that Jesus lived, suffered, died, was buried, and rose again according to the Divine plan of His Father so that lost sinners (such as I) who place their faith and trust in Him (Jesus) can be saved. How do I know this? Because it is recorded for me in the objective truth of God’s Word.

[ February 04, 2006, 06:06 AM: Message edited by: Bible-boy ]
 

tamborine lady

Active Member
type.gif


Bible Boy said:My salvation does not depend on my experience. I would be in real trouble if it did. My salvation is rooted in and depends solely on the fact that Jesus lived, suffered, died, was buried, and rose again according to the Divine plan of His Father so that lost sinners (such as I) who place their faith and trust in Him (Jesus) can be saved. How do I know this? Because it is recorded for me in the objective truth of God’s Word.


Tam says:

My salvation does not depend on tongues, or falling in the spirit, or interpretation, or wisdom, nor knowledge, or any other thing.

The sole reason that I will go to heaven is that I have asked Jesus into my heart. I believe in Him shedding His blood for me, He died on the cross, was buried, rose again after three days, and now sits at the right hand of god.

There is nothing that says you have to do any of that other stuff to be saved.

Working for Jesus,

Tam

P.S. That doesn't mean that those things don't happen today though!! :D
 

atestring

New Member
Why are there over 200 post on thus thread?
Sounds like a lot of interest in this subject.
It is interesting that this was a common experience in the Great Awakening that Jonathan Edwards was involved in, the CAne Ridge Revival, The Ministry of George Whitfield,
The New Hebredes Revival, THe Ministry of John Wesley, and common among the Ulster Presbryterians in the 1630's. By the way the "Ulster Presbryterians" were the originators of the term "Redneck" but not for the reason of being slain in the Spirit.
for info on this see my post on the Forum for Polls under Redneck Trivia.
 
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