Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
This is exactly the kind of thing that Dr. Bob is talking about here: Eleven Simple Rules for PostingFor the sake of honesty, I would not consider changing from the KJV, to any of the 'modern bibles', unless you are also inclined to change your religion to that which they espouse.
All of the changes that have been made in the 'modern bibles' which diminish and counter the teachings of Jesus' Divinity do so for one reason; their translators and writers didn't believe in the Deity of Jesus Christ, so they took out what they wanted to define Jesus as a man and not God.
They just changed the 'bible' from that representing Christianity, to another religion. Gnosticism, if you like, or Anti-Christ Occultism.
The modern versions are intended to be a 'bridge', between Apostate Christianity and the Occult.
"At this point I don't even need to mention Isaiah 14:12, which replaced Satan, the shining falling angel, with Jesus Christ, the Morning Star.
Any English Bible translation that has "morning star" at Isaiah 14:12 may have been influenced by the Latin Vulgate's and the KJV's rendering "Lucifer." It is the Latin-based term Lucifer that suggests its synonym "morning star."
"At this point I don't even need to mention Isaiah 14:12,
which replaced Satan, the shining falling angel,
with Jesus Christ, the Morning Star.
The Latin Vulgate, Isaiah 14:12, quomodo cecidisti de caelo lucifer qui mane oriebaris corruisti in terram qui vulnerabas gentes
The article that you quoted or cited was wrong. Claims in that article were refuted. Your opinion is also incorrect.
The article above indicates that there have been influences behind changes made to the words in versions of the Bible that were intended to accommodate the worship of something other than God.
Without Yet, Jesus lied.I grew up on the NIV version of the Bible, which for me means hardly used at all, not enough to really remember anything, but I say this because I did not grow up on the King James. After I got saved I heard about KJVO and didn't understand it but did wonder about all the versions. I cam to believe that the King James was the most accurate English Bible still today, partly due to manuscripts being the Majority Text related, and partly due to translational formal equivalence and the use of thee's and thou's to refer to single persons and you and ye etc. to refer to multiple people.
However, recently I was struggling to understand some things in the Old Testament and a couple people recommended it could be due to the King James older language, and its true there are things I don't think I understand in the King James due to the changes in language from that time. I have lately since coming back to real Bible study and seeking to live for God thought about versions a number of times, wondering what version I should use and my wife who is from the Philippines. What version do I give out or recommend if someone is a new believer or interested in learning more about Christianity etc.
A couple of times in thinking about this I stuck with the King James because at least I knew what I didn't know most of the time, and I like the information I get from thee's and ye's that most versions don't give as far as I know in the modern translations?
Anyways something came up or I remembered reading about the New Testament writers quoting from the Greek Septuagint and not the Hebrew text and looked up and saw this was correct sometimes but that a lot of times the NT quotes are not a exact match to any text lines or manuscripts we have today, is that correct? So this makes me think I have to readdress my understanding of preservation.
If Jesus used multiple lines or used the Greek then it suggests to me that maybe all the versions available today are also fine to use and that God's message is in all of them. I don't know how this works, one of the issues that really hit me hard lately was a spot in the Old Testament that lists different age or years in one book and in another in the King James that I can't make sense of, I read some stuff online that tried to explain it, but none really clicked for me as fitting the scenario and one of the explanations was copyist error and showing that other lines of manuscripts or something had the same years listed as listed in another part of the Bible so didn't have this confusion. However, this is also much like one point that pushed me to the KJV to begin with which was Jesus saying he was not going *yet* to something in the New Testament, whereas modern versions don't have the word *yet* and I really struggled with him saying that and then going later and felt relief from the yet.
So I don't know how to understand these things. The fact is that not all manuscripts are the exact same, as I used to rely on the fact that in one of Peter's epistles it says the seed of God which is the word of God is incorruptible. I took this to mean the KJV was perfect. However even the KJV was pieced together through textual criticism as far as I know and not taken from one manuscript word for word, is that right?
I don't understand textual criticism because textual criticism to me means to say "Ok guys, God didn't preserve this so we better figure it out ourselves". I don't see in textual criticism and piecing this part of this manuscript with this part of this translation with this part of this scroll as trusting God's preservation. But maybe I don't understand preservation at all is my new thinking.
I am concerned about issues I find regardless of if its King James or modern versions. So I really don't know what to think. I still prefer reading the King James, it is more enjoyable to me and I am struggling with modern ones trying to understand it all, but it is also showing me things I didn't realize. Like in KJV Jesus said not to be called a master, whereas in modern versions he said not to be called a teacher, or guide, or director, etc. which means I may have been violating this and I don't know how to take it if it isn't about the word "master".
I could go back to reading the King James, but what if the textual criticism is right and the basis for modern versions is more accurate?
I don't know guys, I agree that saying what is in the Majority Text seems to be what God has preserved and I agree with trusting God, we can't go wrong with faith in God can we? I don't understand why we would think just because something is older means it is somehow better when there are so many votes as it were for the Majority Text via all the Majority Text manuscripts vs the critical text.
I like the NET Bibles notes which helps show translation issues and it translated something different from the majority of other versions and talks about issues of what manuscripts and reading is best, so again using textual criticism they decided on a reading that is not what most translations do. I don't know, I just don't get how to understand preservation and how to know what verses are Scripture and which aren't.
But I do agree with those that say reformers and KJV Translators who all relied on the textual criticism involved in putting together the Textus Receptus, might very well prefer the Critical Text because of textual criticism today, and apparently people had a hard time letting go of the Latin Vulgate and the Greek Septuagint in a similar way as the King James version. So, I don't know what to think, can you help?
Thank you for any help.
Try and think a little deeper. Jesus could have changed his mind. Yes, the word "yet" does belong there. But without it does not make Jesus a liar. You are not that powerful.Without Yet, Jesus lied.
No, it did.Try and think a little deeper. Jesus could have changed his mind. Yes, the word "yet" does belong there. But without it does not make Jesus a liar. You are not that powerful.
Read this post.Without Yet, Jesus lied.
Read this post.I grew up on the NIV version of the Bible, which for me means hardly used at all, not enough to really remember anything, but I say this because I did not grow up on the King James. After I got saved I heard about KJVO and didn't understand it but did wonder about all the versions. I cam to believe that the King James was the most accurate English Bible still today, partly due to manuscripts being the Majority Text related, and partly due to translational formal equivalence and the use of thee's and thou's to refer to single persons and you and ye etc. to refer to multiple people.
However, recently I was struggling to understand some things in the Old Testament and a couple people recommended it could be due to the King James older language, and its true there are things I don't think I understand in the King James due to the changes in language from that time. I have lately since coming back to real Bible study and seeking to live for God thought about versions a number of times, wondering what version I should use and my wife who is from the Philippines. What version do I give out or recommend if someone is a new believer or interested in learning more about Christianity etc.
A couple of times in thinking about this I stuck with the King James because at least I knew what I didn't know most of the time, and I like the information I get from thee's and ye's that most versions don't give as far as I know in the modern translations?
Anyways something came up or I remembered reading about the New Testament writers quoting from the Greek Septuagint and not the Hebrew text and looked up and saw this was correct sometimes but that a lot of times the NT quotes are not a exact match to any text lines or manuscripts we have today, is that correct? So this makes me think I have to readdress my understanding of preservation.
If Jesus used multiple lines or used the Greek then it suggests to me that maybe all the versions available today are also fine to use and that God's message is in all of them. I don't know how this works, one of the issues that really hit me hard lately was a spot in the Old Testament that lists different age or years in one book and in another in the King James that I can't make sense of, I read some stuff online that tried to explain it, but none really clicked for me as fitting the scenario and one of the explanations was copyist error and showing that other lines of manuscripts or something had the same years listed as listed in another part of the Bible so didn't have this confusion. However, this is also much like one point that pushed me to the KJV to begin with which was Jesus saying he was not going *yet* to something in the New Testament, whereas modern versions don't have the word *yet* and I really struggled with him saying that and then going later and felt relief from the yet.
So I don't know how to understand these things. The fact is that not all manuscripts are the exact same, as I used to rely on the fact that in one of Peter's epistles it says the seed of God which is the word of God is incorruptible. I took this to mean the KJV was perfect. However even the KJV was pieced together through textual criticism as far as I know and not taken from one manuscript word for word, is that right?
I don't understand textual criticism because textual criticism to me means to say "Ok guys, God didn't preserve this so we better figure it out ourselves". I don't see in textual criticism and piecing this part of this manuscript with this part of this translation with this part of this scroll as trusting God's preservation. But maybe I don't understand preservation at all is my new thinking.
I am concerned about issues I find regardless of if its King James or modern versions. So I really don't know what to think. I still prefer reading the King James, it is more enjoyable to me and I am struggling with modern ones trying to understand it all, but it is also showing me things I didn't realize. Like in KJV Jesus said not to be called a master, whereas in modern versions he said not to be called a teacher, or guide, or director, etc. which means I may have been violating this and I don't know how to take it if it isn't about the word "master".
I could go back to reading the King James, but what if the textual criticism is right and the basis for modern versions is more accurate?
I don't know guys, I agree that saying what is in the Majority Text seems to be what God has preserved and I agree with trusting God, we can't go wrong with faith in God can we? I don't understand why we would think just because something is older means it is somehow better when there are so many votes as it were for the Majority Text via all the Majority Text manuscripts vs the critical text.
I like the NET Bibles notes which helps show translation issues and it translated something different from the majority of other versions and talks about issues of what manuscripts and reading is best, so again using textual criticism they decided on a reading that is not what most translations do. I don't know, I just don't get how to understand preservation and how to know what verses are Scripture and which aren't.
But I do agree with those that say reformers and KJV Translators who all relied on the textual criticism involved in putting together the Textus Receptus, might very well prefer the Critical Text because of textual criticism today, and apparently people had a hard time letting go of the Latin Vulgate and the Greek Septuagint in a similar way as the King James version. So, I don't know what to think, can you help?
Thank you for any help.