atpollard
Well-Known Member
WHY God does what God does is almost always known only to God.The question is why does God fully saves some?
1] Because He has given them the real choice to trust in His son for salvation (free will)
2] Because He picked some out and condemned the rest because He could. (determinism)
You are ignoring the problem of sin and all of the scripture about the inability and unwillingness of man to come to God. Here are three verses for you to consider what they tell you about PEOPLE:
- And they heard the sound of the LORD God walking in the garden in the cool of the day, and Adam and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the LORD God among the trees of the garden. [Genesis 3:8 NKJV]
- "And this is the condemnation, that the light has come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil. For everyone practicing evil hates the light and does not come to the light, lest his deeds should be exposed." [John 3:19-20 NKJV]
- "And you [He made alive], who were dead in trespasses and sins, in which you once walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit who now works in the sons of disobedience, among whom also we all once conducted ourselves in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, just as the others." [Ephesians 2:1-3 NKJV]
What is the common thread throughout these verses, how does that common thread refute PELAGIANISM, and why is that common thread a problem to be overcome in your "Option #1"?
John Wesley came up with one answer, but there are others. I merely hope for honest Christians to acknowledge the problem rather than pretend the verses (and truth) do not exist.