skypair said:
Well, I suppose He would love whom He foreknew -- but that would be adding information not called forth by the context. The ONE piece of information that is cannot be omitted from the text is that He "knows beforehand" --- that His omniscience is applicable to the process of salvation.
skypair
it changes nothing nor adds nothing. Do your homework. This is the meaning.
Now you are right God does know beforehand. But this is not the meaning of the text. If it were, all of mankind would be saved. Because..
For whom he did foreknow, ....and God knows all things, all men and all hearts.
....he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.
So it is clear it means more then just knowing beforehand.
You said above..
but that would be adding information not called forth by the context
I can prove and backup my statement from the Greek. Now...will you ADD information to the word, in order to make it fit your doctrine?
Does foreknow mean only ...."to know beforehand"?