Originally posted by Ken the Spurgeonite:
Aki,
I found the following the following article to be extremely helpful to me a few years ago. Perhaps will help to answer your question as well.
Ken,
thanks for your reply.
i've read that article before already. in fact, i adhere to that. however, the only question the article answered was:
The chief objection against this theory is that it is not fair. God would be unjust to let one man represent mankind on so serious an issue. Each person ought to stand on his own. This objection can be answered in two ways.
true, God is still just. but it still did not answer the question: is a non-elect to be blamed for his own condemnation. he was represented, yes. he went down with the falling of his perfect representative. that made him guilty. but he is guilty due to representation and not due to his own doing. this creates a serious question. there is no act of his own to condemn him, but only that of his representative. yet come judgement the method is personal.
thus, his volition never played a role to his condemnation. is he therefore personally to be blamed? did he have a choice?
come TULIP, each non-elect never had a chance, for he was condemned due to representation and that he has no choice but to get condemned regardless of his volition. more so, he also never had the ability to accept Christ due also to the sin nature that got him unable. again, no volition was played in his condemnation, neither in his possesion of inability. he never chose any, but he had both anyways. is he therefore to be blamed? or was he just a victim of represenation?
i know i am repeating the same arguments over and over, but your answer still does not suffice. i've had this conversation with another calvinist in another post and he answered double predestionation, which answered everything. on your end, however, you do not cling to that, but your answer does not satisfy. thus my question stands.