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Featured Can a translation be Inspired and Infallible?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Jordan Kurecki, Dec 26, 2013.

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  1. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Do you view the TR as being perfect greek text, exact copy of originals, or that it just not as "corrupt" as CT/MT were by your reasoning?
     
    #81 Yeshua1, Jan 15, 2014
  2. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Geneva bible should be good for even KJVO, but the NKJV seen by them as bad as nasb/Niv!
     
    #82 Yeshua1, Jan 15, 2014
  3. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    inconsistent KJV-only reasoning

    Why is there supposedly a problem with the MKJV at Daniel 3:25 unless there is also a problem with the KJV at Daniel 4:8?

    Nebuchadnezzar [Dan. 4:4] speaks to Daniel and in referring to Daniel says "in whom is the spirit of the holy gods" (Dan. 4:8). If Nebuchadnezzar is supposed to know to refer to the God of the Jews as "God" singular in Daniel 3:25, why does he not also refer to Him as "God" singular in Daniel 4:8 and thus say "in whom is the spirit of the holy God"?

    Are you also suggesting that there is a problem with the KJV at 1 Samuel 4:8 where it has the Philistines referring to the true God of Israel as "Gods" [plural]?
     
    #83 Logos1560, Jan 15, 2014
  4. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Wouldn't they know and call God as just one of the gods, as being heathen, they would have a plurality of gods to call upon?
     
    #84 Yeshua1, Jan 15, 2014
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