Umm... Yes! Apparently the KJV translators weren't as put off by the word as you are...Originally posted by padredurand:
So your concern is with the name Easter and not what it symbolizes? To what extent should that conviction apply? Should I refrain from driving my Ford Taurus on church business because it is named after an astrological sign or, perhaps, remove the tags and refer to it as my Ford Sedan.
The car will still be there for my use but I won't have to contend with promoting astrology by driving it.
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Do you find the origin of Easter in the Bible?
And when hee had apprehended him, hee put him in prison, and deliuered him to foure quaternions of souldiers to keepe him, intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. (Acts 12:4 KJV-1611)
Who am I to tell the translators they are in sin? </font>[/QUOTE]I don't know about Taurus, but don't like to drive "Saturn".
You can find the details about Acts 12:3-4 in another thread about KJV:
http://www.baptistboard.com/ubb/ultimatebb.php/topic/28/3540/17.html
Some excerpts are as follows:
Why the time was Days of Unleavened Bread already, which means the Passover has already passed by. Passover is the first day of the Unleavened Bread Days, and if it was already in the middle of the Days Azumon (Unleavened), it means Passover was already passed. On this point, would you please explain your view once again?
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Pascha or Pasca in Greek should be checked further on the following issues:
-Whether we can find the use of the word in other ancient Greek literatures.
-Whether it was ever used for other festival than Pesach.
I don't think KJV translators didn't know about the meaning of it at that time. As you mentioned they translated correctly before and then noticed the contradiction in Acts 12:3-4, then verified it in this way:
Pascah has two meanings : 1) Pesach-Passover 2) Ishtar Festival.
And they found that the Royal families and Nobles during the Haesmonian Dynasty celebrated Ishtar Festival very much as we notice the similar celebration in Jeremiah 44:15-25, and as there was no Greek word for each separately, Pascah could have been used for both. I don't think the Royal families or nobles were so much faithful with Jehova's Festivals, but might have enjoyed certain secular festivals as we see Christmas these days.
One more thing which I am thinking about is that Verse 6 may give some hints, because it says " the same night when Herod would have brought him forth". In other words, the Pascah was already over then. Then it could be in Days of Unleavened Bread, or even Days of Unleavened Bread may have passed already.
However, if we see the next verses, we can have some hints, I think. If it happened right after Passover, then would Peter have departed next day (verse 17)? because it was still Days of Unleavened Bread. Would Herod have executed the soldiers during the Days of Unleavened Bread(v 19)? because Passover was passed just now, then.
Would Herod schedule the execution or hand over of Peter during the Days of Unleavened Bread?
WHY PASCA is mentioned as TAKING PLACE AFTER UNLEAVENED BREAD DAYS?
Acts 12:3 Then were the days of Unleavened Bread.
Acts 12:4 Intending after Pasca (Passover) to bring him forth to the people.
Acts 12:6 When Herod would have brought him forth, the same night Peter was sleeping.
( Is this after Passover but during Days of Unleavened Bread?)
Acts 12:17 Peter departed to other place.(after Passover but during Days of Unleavened Bread?)
Acts 12: 20 Herod commanded that they should be put to death. (Execution during Days of Unleavened Bread?)
My study shows (as you could see in the sites which I mentioned) that:
1 ) Ishtar took place 1 day after Pesach, Pesach 14th of Abib month, Ishtar 15th of the same month. Ishtar lasted 8 days as well. .
2) Ishtar was much more popular throughout the Middle East world, while Pesach was celebrated by religious people of Israel.
3) Kings believed that Ishtar had the authority to appoint the kings and to dismiss them, and therefore Herod would have paid very much attention to it.
4) Even King Solomon worshipped Ishtar and didn't care about the Passover, but King Herod was more faithful with Passover? (1 Kings 11:5)
5) Days of Unleavened Bread had the focus on the first day, Passover, then I believe that Ishtar had the focus on the Sunday(Sunrise) and on the final day, as a finale, with a lot of Orgies
6) Both Pesach and Ishtar festival were called Pascha in Aramaic and I can imagine nobody would have called it as Ishtar because it was holy to them.
7) Then it was re-translated as PASXA in Greek.
Otherwise, it would be very difficult to understand the contradiction and the whole situation in Ac 12
[ January 06, 2006, 12:30 PM: Message edited by: Eliyahu ]