It translates the Hebrew word Yashar and that term is translated "righeous" 9 times and conveys moral values.
A value that is either right or wrong, good or evil.
From what i see in Genesis 1:26 (unless you put a prophetic twist on it
Tell me what attribute of God is mutable? Is his holiness mutable? His holiness constitutes the character of his moral nature - is that mutable? Can we put a "prophetic twist" on that? The moral "Image" of God is as immutable in Genesis 1:26 as in Ephesians 4:24 and Colossians 3:10 unless you "put a prophetic twist on it" making it mutable????? So, God's moral image does not change between Genesis and Colossians does it? His moral image is the ONLY moral nature He defines as "upright" or "righteous" or "holy" and Adam was made in his MORAL ("upright") image.
How do you define "sin"? Is not sin the transgression of God's Law (1 Jn. 3:6) Is not sin coming short of the "glory of God" or coming short of his RIGHTEOUS MORAL NATURE (Rom. 3:21, 23)???
Tell me at what point in time did Adam become a sinner? Before he ate or when he ate? If he were not a sinner before he ate was he not SINLESS? How do you define sinless by Biblical definition? Is it not "be ye therefore PERFECT EVEN AS your Father is PERFECT"? Is it not "Be ye holy EVEN AS God is holy"? Is it not keeping the principle of the law in spirit and words and actions? Sure, Adam's sinless state was MUTABLE but it was real nevertheless. Hence, it was INFERIOR to sinlessness "in Christ" because that is immutable. Is some light beginning to drawn???
Morality is a construct of MAN deciding what is "right" and "wrong". God works in terms of "Righteous" and "Unrighteous". These are the only absolutes.
I see, "right" and "wrong" are men's moral values but not God's as works in terms of "righteous" and "unrighteous"???????? So men are moral but God is not moral as he does not deal in "right" and "wrong." I can't even keep a straight face reading this nonsense. How can you be serious and write such nonsense?????? You are confused. God condemns man's moral values of "right' and "wrong" ONLY because they are lower than his standards of right and wrong! Adam was made "upright" by God's standard of right - mutable - but still right.
The First decision that was made, regarding acting towards God's Nature and commands, Adam and Eve Sinned. Adam did not know "Good" and "evil" so how can you assert he was "moral"?
Really, Adam was not informed by God what was wrong for him to do in Genesis 2:17? You really beleive that? In Genesis 3 he learned by EXPERIENTIAL KNOWLEGE but he full well knew and understood what God had said was wrong or else he could not have sinned WILLFULLY and KNOWINGLY (1 Tim. 2:12-13).