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And this is due to what? Could it be they still deny Christ!No. The paschal feast is carried on by Jews today; it is on a Saturday--the Sabbath. It is a part of the passover. It is a Jewish feast, has nothing to do with Christianity.
And this vernal equinox in none the less than Easter.The resurrection is celebrated on the first day of the week (Sunday), in remembrance of Christ arising from the dead.
You dmand everyone bow to your definition of Easter.Those who celebrate Easter, an event which came into existence about 900 A.D. simply celebrate a pagan festival which has nothing to do with Christianity. Since when do bunnies lay eggs? The event has to do with the worship of a fertility goddess? I am really surprised that you put so much emphasis on the worship of a fertility goddess rather than the celebration of the Resurrection of Christ.
Oh, so now you can sleighthanndedly attack the KJV and other Bibles by saying they are not the Bible.The word Easter is not found in the "Bible," may be in the KJV translation of the Bible, but not in the Bible itself.
I am not surprised to see this come from you.The NT Christians didn't celebrate Christ's resurrection. They celebrated Passover, and this is what the verse is referring to.
I wonder what response we'd get from asking a modern Greek to define Easter would be?Nope, and neither do the Greeks of today. although modern Greek is different from koine Greek. Luke spoke Greek. Why would he need a dictionary for his own language?
Oh, and did Webster need a dictionary?
You said in the time of the writing of Acts Christians didn't celebrate The Resurrection and now you have jelly all over your face.:laugh:Wow, Harold Garvey, I am not surprised to see that come from you.
I look forward to a post of your one day making sense. Hmm, we should translate the word "pascha" as "easter" because Mary ran back to tell peopel about the the resurrection. That makes total sense. Well, I'm sure to you it does.:tonofbricks:
Well, why don't you revert back to the "good ol' days" of 1st Century Christianity and wear a loin clothe under your robe.Webster's dictionary is referring to the Christian festival of the Resurrection. The first century Christian had no such festival. The question is what was the NT contextually referring to in its use of the word "pascha"? It was referring to the the Jewish passover feast. Therefore, "passover" is the correct translation.
Hmmmm, I know the Passover was answered by the Resurrection and that Easter is the time of the year we commemorate Christ being Risen. But now I have to understand that pascha CANNOT change in meaning to understand the Bible.Exactly. To properly understand the bible, one needs to know what the message was to the original audience, not what it sounds like to us today. Once you have the original intent and message, you can then pull that message into today's world. To skip this important step is to trample the message of the bible underfoot, espousing one's own thoughts and opinions above that which God has given us through his word.
I know several preachers who read a passage and then go off half-cocked thinking they know what God said. They have no interest in actually digging to find out what the original intent of the passage was, who the intended audience was, or why that particular message was recorded for us. In other words, they ignore the entirety of God's word for their own spin on what they think the words on the page say.
This a miry pit if there ever was one. God had His words penned for a reason at the time they were written. It would do each and every student of the bible well to bother to try to find out this information before they decide to declare, "thus saith the Lord."
I didn't say that. I stated a general truth: "Words change through use and dictionaries then must also change." Every comment does not have a specific bearing on the larger issue.So "pascha" has changed meanings, from "passover" to "Easter"? ...
I know in English that the word "bat" can be a wooden club in which to strike a ball, or "bat" can be a small flying mammal; those are two very different things represented by the same word (in spelling).... Then why are all the other uses of "pascha" changed to "Easter" as well? "Passover" and "Easter" are two very different events, so surely a single word does not stand to mean them both?
Here is a mistake that you are continually making.Hmmmm, I know the Passover was answered by the Resurrection and that Easter is the time of the year we commemorate Christ being Risen. But now I have to understand that pascha CANNOT change in meaning to understand the Bible.
Seems I have to deny alot of things in the past 1900 years to believe that.
I never said that it could. I was making the point that lexicons are not infallible or inerrant.Now please tell how "pascha" could mean computer or Easter, ...
How are you going to know that? I know you don't have Greek dictionary from the 1st century AD.... The question is: What did "pascha" mean during the time of Luke? ...
Maybe not by that name, but he likely did celebrate the Lord's resurrection.... Neither had he ever encountered the event of Easter.
Quite the contrary. Most of the people that I know that celebrate "Easter" are "anti-Christ." True believers do not celebrate Easter, but rather the Resurrection of Christ. Let me show you the difference. On that particular day we avoid the use of the word "Easter" and call the day "Resurrection Sunday," and celebrate the Resurrection of Christ. I spent 20 years in the RCC. During those 20 years we had easter egg hunts, had chocolate bunnies, gave a lot of importance to the easter bunny and all the pagan traditions that went with it. It is all paganism. You may think it is all harmless fun. But no bunny has eggs. This comes straight from pagan rituals, celebrating the goddess of fertility.You are forgetting that the only ones who observe the Passover are anti-christ and you seem to award them more than you do Christ's fulfilling of prophecy.
Again you are the one stuck in error as you ignore the context. How many times have you read verse three and just ignore it: "These are the days of unleavened bread." What does that mean? It was the time of the passover.OK, stay stuck in error and forget that Easter means The Resurrection and go backl to dead traditions. Trod underfoot the blood of Christ and start eating roast lamb eaten with bitter herbs.
When I say that English does not supersede Greek, you conclude that I deny that Christ has risen from the dead. Please explain how you come to this conclusion with any logic.OK, so you deny Christ has risen from the dead and we all should jump into your Greek vessel and drown oursleves in the sea of error.
Easter is a name of pagan festival. The name Easter had its origins about 900 A.D., certainly not in the time of Christ or the Apostles. English does not correct the Greek and Hebrew as you are implying. Easter is not a Christian holiday. We celebrate the Resurrection not the worship of rabbits.English has a word for the fulfillment of the shadow of things to come, namebly Easter which is the title given to the day we recognize and set ourselves apart to His Rewsurrection, you go ahead and put more emphasis on thre Passover if you wish, but then you are giving credence to something that is totally anti-christ.:tear:
There are other sources besides lexicons.I never said that it could. I was making the point that lexicons are not infallible or inerrant.
The history of words can be traced. Look in any English dictionary, and see how many words can be traced in their origin, their etymology. Besides that I have four different lexicons, not just Thayers. And they all with one accord, agree.How are you going to know that? I know you don't have Greek dictionary from the 1st century AD.
In Luke's time? Did they? What evidence do you have?Maybe not by that name, but he likely did celebrate the Lord's resurrection.
The NT Christians didn't celebrate Christ's resurrection.
Why do you celebrate it then?DHK said:In Luke's time? Did they? What evidence do you have [that they celebrated the Lord's resurrection]?
DHK said:True believers do not celebrate Easter, but rather the Resurrection of Christ. Let me show you the difference. On that particular day we avoid the use of the word "Easter" and call the day "Resurrection Sunday," and celebrate the Resurrection of Christ.
Nothing that is ironclad; but church historians were already recording a squabble over the calendar date that the Resurrection should be celebrated before 200 AD. The geographically widespread acceptance of it at that time suggests an even early tradition.... In Luke's time? Did they? What evidence do you have?
Oh, so Jesus didn't fulfill any of the ceremonial implications of the law by being our "Passover".Here is a mistake that you are continually making.
The resurrection never replaced the passover. That is not proper theology. The passover still exists as a feast for the Jews. It was a Jewish feast then, and it still is today. The Greek word for passover is "pascha." Nothing has ever changed that.
900 years later when Easter came along it came from a different language source. It does not come from Greek. It has no relation to the Greek language. Thus "pascha" can never mean Easter. Easter is primarily an Old English word with some relationship with German. English is a Germanic language.
There is no relation between Easter and Passover, none whatsoever.
I'm sure Luke and Paul both did, and we now do every Easter. But we also celebrate everyday as being born again.I never said that it could. I was making the point that lexicons are not infallible or inerrant.
How are you going to know that? I know you don't have Greek dictionary from the 1st century AD.
Maybe not by that name, but he likely did celebrate the Lord's resurrection.
You ought to give yourself the dubious title of a pagan then more than you like to give it to me!:type:Quite the contrary. Most of the people that I know that celebrate "Easter" are "anti-Christ." True believers do not celebrate Easter, but rather the Resurrection of Christ. Let me show you the difference. On that particular day we avoid the use of the word "Easter" and call the day "Resurrection Sunday," and celebrate the Resurrection of Christ. I spent 20 years in the RCC. During those 20 years we had easter egg hunts, had chocolate bunnies, gave a lot of importance to the easter bunny and all the pagan traditions that went with it. It is all paganism. You may think it is all harmless fun. But no bunny has eggs. This comes straight from pagan rituals, celebrating the goddess of fertility.
Your application is only a general one and misguided by your dogmatism. I do not do those things as you described and rarely even did as a child.The above is how most "Christians" celebrate "Easter". That is anti-Christ. It is not a celebration of the resurrection of Christ, and has nothing to do with it.
The only problem you have with all the above is the English dictionary tells us Easter is a Christian day of observance to give recognition ot the Resurrection of Christ.Again you are the one stuck in error as you ignore the context. How many times have you read verse three and just ignore it: "These are the days of unleavened bread." What does that mean? It was the time of the passover.
The word Easter is not in the Bible; not in the Greek. There was no Easter at that time. It is Easter that is full of dead man's traditions.
When I say that English does not supersede Greek, you conclude that I deny that Christ has risen from the dead. Please explain how you come to this conclusion with any logic.
Easter is a name of pagan festival. The name Easter had its origins about 900 A.D., certainly not in the time of Christ or the Apostles. English does not correct the Greek and Hebrew as you are implying. Easter is not a Christian holiday. We celebrate the Resurrection not the worship of rabbits.
Acts 12:4 refers to the Passover. You have not met my challenge to cut and past Acts 12:3,4 and demonstrate how it could mean anything else but the passover. Why are you so reluctant to do so?