Brother Bob said:
Speaking by the Holy Spirit and being Indwelt with the Holy Spirit, is a great difference and you know it.
I agree fully, and never said the two were identical, and in fact, noted a difference. I said that David had to "have" the Holy Spirit, in some senses, else what he prayed, and Jesus' statement about him made no sense.
Also, I see you used Webster, then go look when the word orginated, it will tell you without bios (sic). You can use the definition of "dissemble with" or you can use hypocrite. I say Peter disassembled from the Gentiles and others followed. You can use the word hypocrite.
Funny, you should mention 'bias' (for that is the word I believe you intended as opposed to the abbrevaition for 'biographies.'). However, even you (not to mention your own favorite Greek resource, Strong's Concordance) should notice the difference (Strong's does notice this difference, unlike Brother Bob

) between "
dissemble" - from
4942 sunupokrinomai - sunupokrinomai -
soon-oo-pok-rin'-om-ahee) from
sun - sun
4862 and
upokrinomai - hupokrinomai
5271; (
which is defined as)
to act hypocritically in concert
with :-
- [
and which is rendered as (You really
should invest the 10 minutes sometime to read "The Plan of the Book" found on page 5 of both the Hebrew and Greek concordances in "Strong's" to learn how the book is actually set up, as opposed to simply reading your own interpretation out of it, based on some word you find under an entry, you know!) in the 1769 'Benjamin Blaney' redo of the KJV, RV, and ASV (unless otherwise noted for the RV and/or ASV)], "
dissemble with", and "
dissimulation" from
5272 upokrithV -
hupokrites,
hoop-ok-ree-tace'; from
upokrinomai - hupokrinomai
5271; acting under a feigned part, i.e. (figuratively) deceit ("
hypocrisy"):-- (and rendered as) condemnation, dissimulation,
hypocrisy. (The KJV translators even render this word
as hypocrisy, in Mt. 23:28; Mk. 12:15; Lk. 12:1; I Ti. 4:2; Jas. 3:17 and I Pet. 2:1, (Jas. 5:12 - WEB) ,and only here render it as "dissimulation".) The word comes from the underlined, blue bolded word above, that, if transliterated is exactly "hypocrites" for cryin' out loud, yet you are questioning this rendering, because it is not exactly "spelled out" in the KJV? Get real. One would not have to recognize the first Greek letter, and merely be able to read this account in the the English of the WYC, KJV, or about any other standard version to see that
hypocrisy is exactly what is in view here.
You are entirely correct, albeit unwittingly, that "
disassembling" was what Peter was doing - withdrawing and not eating with the Gentiles when those "of the circumcision" were in town, because Peter was afraid of the Jews.
Paul, not
EdSutton or any other BB Poster whom you have so wrongly suggested of wanting to 'put down the Apostles,' says
"11 But when Peter was come to Antioch, I withstood him to the face, because he was to be blamed."
Did you get it? Paul got in Peter's face, as we would say today, and they went 'toe to toe' over this, because of something Peter was doing. What was Peter doing? "Disassembling" with the Gentile brethren.
"12 For before that certain came from James, he did eat with the Gentiles: but when they were come, he withdrew and separated himself, fearing them which were of the circumcision."
Any questions? The verse seems perfectly clear. Or does it? Overlooked in this, oftentimes, is that this verse, describing Peter's actions show where Peter is directly disobeying God's specific commands to him regarding foods being as 'clean' and 'unclean', given three times, no less, in Ac. 10:10-16, where God announced that He has declared these foods as clean, and commanded Peter to 'Arise, kill, and eat the food provided.'
Are you surprised that Peter's initial response was "Not so, Lord!" Where have we heard that one before? Uh- (Mt. 16:22; 23:35)! Let's continue, with how Paul sees this as hypocrisy.
"13 And the other Jews dissembled likewise with him; insomuch that Barnabas also was carried away with their dissimulation." Even Barnabas, another apostle (and yes, Barnabas is an apostle, just as are both Peter, and Paul), was "carried away" in this. This hypocrisy, and conflict is not isolated to some nameless individual, somewhere, but now has ensnared three Apostles, including two of the four leading ones, and Paul's own mentor. Sounds kinda' important, I would say.
" 14 But when I saw that they walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel, I said unto Peter before them all, ..."
Here, Paul called Peter out publicly (in Antioch) and is telling those in Galatia
exactly what he both did and said, there, and here is the 'speech,"
viz.
"If thou, being a Jew, livest after the manner of Gentiles, and not as do the Jews, why compellest thou the Gentiles to live as do the Jews? 15 We who are Jews by nature, and not sinners of the Gentiles,
16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
17 But if, while we seek to be justified by Christ, we ourselves also are found sinners, is therefore Christ the minister of sin? God forbid.
18 For if I build again the things which I destroyed, I make myself a transgressor.
19 For I through the law am dead to the law, that I might live unto God.
20 I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me.
21 I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness come by the law, then Christ is dead in vain."
This is not that hard to understand, IMO, as to the "why", even in the
KJV or
WYC, and the
WYC is written in "Middle English", and not even in any "Modern English," unlike the 'Early Modern English' of the
KJV.
Incidentally, I suppose this is as good a place to say this, as any other. Has anyone considered
"why" the
KJV translators give an 'inconsistent reading' for "hupocrites" here, as opposed to the other uses rendered as "hypocrisy", found elsewhere?
I will suggest it may be because they, just as you, Brother Bob, were extremely reluctant to identify Peter with any hypocrisy, in any form, whatsoever, if they could find some way to avoid it. Who were the KJV translators? For the most part, they were 'second generation' scholars from the Anglican Church, which was, at that time, effectively the "Roman Catholic" church minus only the, at that time, current pope, and College of Cardinals, since Henry VIII had 'deposed the pope', and made himself, as the king, the titular 'physical' head of the Church of England, (so that he could divorce Catherine of Aragon, in order to marry Anne Boleyn) with his buddy, the Archbishop of Canterbury, as the 'Spiritual Head' of the said church.
Try as I might, even today, I still find it hard to fathom the number of of Baptists, especially 'Calvinistic' Baptists, that advocate for the
KJV, a translation that was effectively done by the Church of England, as a 'house organ', that would not do too much damage to their doctrines, while giving little attention to the
Geneva Bible, which was translated by persecuted Protestant scholars who fled to escape the Roman Catholic Queen, Mary I, and some major modern versions, such as the very good, if overly 'literal'
NASB, the
HCSB, commissioned and owned by the Southern Baptist Convention (which was comissioned and conjoined with the work of 'Baptist' Arthur Farstad, etc. at al. in opposition to the 'Liberal' type tendancies of the NIV and TNIV that were growing, and one with a large number of top-flite scholars, theologians, linguists, and translators, including many Baptists, and the equally scholarly
NKJV, the most 'Baptist' of all major "standard" translations.
To see so many individuals saying "Yes!" to the High Anglican Church version of the
KJV, with the language that is dated by 2 1/2 to 4 centuries and when language is constantly changing, and questionable theology (not to mention the support given to a "divine right of kings") backing the KJV (or likewise, lauding the modern 'all inclusive' types
NIV and/or
TNIV),
while saying "NO!" to the
GENEVA,
NASB, HCSB, and
NKJV is simply astounding to me, as a 'Protestant' and a 'Baptist.'
Finally, what exactly was Peter's response at Paul's 'face to face" confrontation with himself, at Antioch? Was he upset with Paul after it was over, and Paul wrote about it for another church? Um- no. He said it was Scripture! (II Pet. 3:15-16)
Let me repeat that!
Peter said it was Scripture.
More later. You have all been warned. :smilewinkgrin:
Ed