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Christ's First Miracle

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by jsn9333, Aug 8, 2007.

  1. standingfirminChrist

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    There were ways of making non alcoholic wine in Bible days, webdog. Historians have recorded this as fact.

    Non alcoholic wines are still made today as well.
     
  2. webdog

    webdog Active Member
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    I edited into my post the usual arguments. That is not non alcoholic wine, my friend.
     
  3. npetreley

    npetreley New Member

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    You forgot the grape fizzies theory.

    http://www.oldtimecandy.com/fizzies.htm
     
  4. dan e.

    dan e. New Member

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    May I recommend "How to Read the Bible for All its Worth"?
     
  5. EdSutton

    EdSutton New Member

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    "Hail! Hail! The gang's all here..."

    Ed
     
  6. webdog

    webdog Active Member
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  7. Jkdbuck76

    Jkdbuck76 Well-Known Member
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    Well,

    All good food for thought. Standingfirm and webdog and all others.....you've given me much to ponder.

    Still, I have to say that Jesus chose a wedding to be the first miracle in His earthly ministry. Says a lot about weddings, doesn't it?
     
  8. standingfirminChrist

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    If it contains the lie that Jesus drank alcohol and approves of it, no you cannot recommend it.
     
  9. dan e.

    dan e. New Member

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    I think we have enough here to put together one of the four different views books. We could find an editor, and put all of the stuff together.

    Do you think anyone would buy it? I do...it would be really edgy with all the tones of the different posts!

    $$$
     
  10. npetreley

    npetreley New Member

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    I'm an editor! How much would it pay?
     
  11. saturneptune

    saturneptune New Member

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    I have always wondered, since they ended up with the good wine, they must have started with the cheaper stuff, if this was not the start of Boone's Farm.
     
  12. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    I didn't say they took a bath in them. I repeated scripture (2v.6) that they were large pots of water used for ritual purification. Compare to Mark 7:3 "For the Pharisees and all the Jews do not eat unless they carefully wash their hands...." They used the pots to wash their hands, and arms, carefully.
    But that would be, as you said, making it up. It would have no biblical or historical basis. What I have stated has both.
    I am following what the text means. You want to use the text to push an agenda, which is contrary to the purpose of the text as originally given.
    The bible doesn't say everyone knew He turned the water into wine. Instead, it clearly says only a few knew. Those who drew the water, and the disciples. The result was the disciples believed.

    There is absolutely no evidence from scripture that anyone drank the wine, other than the head steward. You are assuming the Jews drank from cleaning pots.
    And so, your agenda is made clear. You are not posting to understand what the text says in context, but to push an agenda.
    If you are going to law school, you should brush up on your spelling and grammar.

    peace to you:praying:
     
  13. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    :laugh: I get it.:eek:

    peace to you:praying:
     
  14. jsn9333

    jsn9333 New Member

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    Finally! I'm glad we now agree that neither of us has any definitive proof either way as to whether or not the Jews bathed *in* the pots Christ used to make the wine (making such pots essentially used as a bathtub) or whether they poured water *out* of them over their hands and utensils for washing. That is the point I was trying to make! It is so nice to finally agree.

    When you were insisting the Jews washed themselves *in* the pots you were making yourself look pretty silly. In fact, you still look silly since you are now denying ever having said the Jews bathed themselves *in* the pots when we can all clearly go back to page 3 and read what you said. What you said was, "If you believe a Jew, that had spent 15-30 minutes ceremonially cleansing himself in a 30 gal. water pot, would turn around and drink wine from the same pot, you are indeed blinded by your agenda." (sic)

    So yes, you were indeed insisting the Jews washed themselves *in* the pots. In fact, as silly as it may seem, that statement was relied on by you as underlying evidence that the Jews present would never have drank the wine Christ made. You seemingly ignored that we know for sure that one of them (the host) most definitely drank the wine and enjoyed it immensely. Also if you think Christ would serve a drink to someone that came out of what was essentially a bathtub that means you have a very low opinion of our Savior's manners.

    It is also rather silly, in my humble opinion, to insist that only a few people knew of this miracle. Christ never told his disciples nor the host, bridegroom, and waiters to remain quiet about the miracle. It is silly to think that all these people saw water turned to wine and each decided to not tell anyone.

    Finally, it is ultimately ridiculous for you to continue saying the guests definitely did not drink Christ's wine. Here is some Scripture and one final explaination (not that I think you will get it after this, but I might as well give it one last try):

    John 2:
    8 Then he told them, "Now draw some out and take it to the master of the banquet." They did so,
    9 and the master of the banquet tasted the water that had been turned into wine. He did not realize where it had come from, though the servants who had drawn the water knew. Then he called the bridegroom aside
    10 and said, "Everyone brings out the choice wine first and then the cheaper wine after the guests are methyō; but you have saved the best till now."

    Here is a summary for you
    8 Christ made wine.
    9 Christ had it served to the host.
    10 The host loved it; so he went to the bridegroom and said, "Most people serve the guests the good stuff first, and when they've become 'methyō' they bring out the cheaper wine... however you have done things in the opposite order.

    If you can't understand that logically implies the bridegroom served Christ's choice wine to the guests, then you have bigger problems then just your hypocritical criticism of my grammar. Hint: 'the opposite order' means bringing out the cheaper wine to the guests first, and *then* bringing out the choice wine (that Christ made).

    Once again, the Greek dictionary translates methyō as "drunken", and it is used only in relation to wine, not to other drinks.

    On a personal note, while I thank you for your concern about my spelling and grammar in my upcoming law school experience, please don't worry yourself too much about it. My writing sample (given on a test with no computers, aids, or spell checkers) and a similar admission test got me accepted at the three highest ranked law schools in my current home state (Duke, UNC, and Wake Forest) and a few highly ranked schools in other states I applied to. I would not have brought this up because it could look "haughty", but you chose to criticize me. So before you criticize me or anyone else here again just know many of us intentionally don't pay much attention to grammar when chatting on the Internet because typing speed is more important to us in this setting.

    And if you are going to criticize other's spelling and grammar you should brush up on your own first (see P.S. below for examples). And it is snide to say "peace be to you" and picture a praying icon directly after telling someone to brush up on his grammar. It makes you look insincere (not that you would ever be insincere!).

    I'm leaving today for my family's cabin in the mountains to study and prepare for school. If my having spent 6 pages and several days discussing this topic with you and others means, as you say, that I'm not here to understand but just to push an agenda, then you're sadly mistaken. I thank you for expressing your point of view, as mistaken as it is.

    jsn9333

    P.S. ... from your posts on page 2 and 3:
    - You wrote, "Yes, indeed." That is not technically a complete sentence.
    - In your sentence, "The miracle may have been, more of less, a private miracle..." the correct English phrase should be "more or less", not "more of less".
    - In your following sentence there should neither be a comma after "Jew" nor after "pot". "If you believe a Jew, that had spent 15-30 minutes ceremonially cleansing himself in a 30 gal. water pot, would turn around and drink wine from the same pot, you are indeed blinded by your agenda."

    I personally don't mind these mistakes of yours given that most people let things slide when chatting quickly. However, in your case you should definitely brush up a bit since you apparently enjoy criticizing others on chat boards.
     
    #54 jsn9333, Aug 10, 2007
    Last edited by a moderator: Aug 10, 2007
  15. npetreley

    npetreley New Member

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    I was browsing a site on Texas Primitive Baptists and came across this explanation as to why they use real wine and unleavened bread for communion. Enjoy.

     
  16. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    I never said they "bathed" in the pots. That was your twisting my words and then calling me "silly".
    You look silly because you don't know the difference between ceremonial cleansing and taking a bath.
    You continue to ignore scripture, which points out the head waiter didn't know where the wine came from. And you continue to be intensely focused on using the text as a proof text that wine had a certain alcoholic content, rather than the text demonstrating the qualitative superiority of the New Covenant over the Old Convenant.
    You continue to ignore scripture that clearly says Christ told Mary, "My time has not yet come." There are many similar passages where it is obvious to anyone without an agenda that Jesus was not yet ready to make Himself widely known.

    And, the passage clearly indicates only those who served the wine, and the disciples, knew about the miracle. The result was that the disciples "believed".
    You are finally correct about something. That was a cheap shot. I apologize.

    Good luck at Duke, or wherever it was you decided to go.

    peace to you:praying: (Sincerely)
     
  17. standingfirminChrist

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    I find no historical proof texts from the first century AD that say non alcoholic wine could not be made. I can, on the other hand produce, as others have, historical documents showing non alcoholic wine was made and kept fresh and free from intoxicants for more than a year at a time.

    Josephus recorded wine and fresh fruits being found over a 100 years old and still as fresh as the day they were sealed in Herod's fortress.

    I have never seen a primitive baptist that approved of alcohol... especially in the Sanctuary!

    I am not sure these guys are legit in their claim to be Primitive Baptist.
     
  18. npetreley

    npetreley New Member

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    Well, you can't prove it either way by me. I don't know enough about primitive baptists. That's why I was looking at the web site, to learn.
     
  19. webdog

    webdog Active Member
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    I seriously doubt they were his words. As was the case with him describing who Christ was, there was obvious additions to his words. Since he was jewish, he would have used alcoholic wine at passover. There was no such thing as non-alcoholic wine.
     
  20. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    Is this possible? I'd think it would take a miracle for this to happen. I do not see how a fresh fruit could be preserved for over 100 years unless it was properly canned - and even then there's no way it would be safe to eat that long. I'd think the same with fresh juice (not wine in the sense of alcohol but juice as you're stating). I think even Welch's would be undrinkable after a number of years.
     
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