ccrobinson
Active Member
:applause: :thumbs:
Excellent post, Eric.
Excellent post, Eric.
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carpro said:I said no such thing.
If your position was based on firmer footing, you wouldn't need to twist the words of others so often.
The bedrock of your false position is based on one translation of the Greek word "eis". Here's another.
Acts 2:38 (American Standard Version)
American Standard Version (ASV)
Copyright © 1901 Public Domain
38 And Peter said unto them, Repent ye, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ unto the remission of your sins; and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.
and another
Acts 2:38 (Wycliffe New Testament)
Wycliffe New Testament (WYC)
2001 by Terrence P. Noble,
38 And Peter said to them, Do ye penance [Penance, he said, do ye], and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ, into remission of your sins; and ye shall take the gift of the Holy Ghost.
and another
Acts 2:38 (Young's Literal Translation)
Young's Literal Translation (YLT)
Public Domain
38and Peter said unto them, `Reform, and be baptized each of you on the name of Jesus Christ, to remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit,
Eric B said:And you all think someone will be lost just because they didn't make it to a baptismal pool, even if they intended to (perhaps even made to wait by the Church). So at the Great White Throne, they are cast into Hell, not for rejecting Christ, but because they weren't covered by the blood because of a physical "washing" ceremony, which you claim doesn't literally "wash" anything, and really has any power in itself, yet a person is lost for not having it? You all really need to think about that. Salvation (covering with the blood) is a spiritual transaction, and you have made it purely physical, fleshy, like the literal sprinkling with blood in the original Passover, which was but a SHADOW.
carpro said::thumbs:
You make your points much more eloquently than I.
To the CoC, Peter must have been lying when he said inActs 3:19. "Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out..."
I guess he just "forgot" to mention baptism.![]()
carpro said:The reason for baptism is changed in each case.
The CoC has picked the one (emp added) that meets their test of exclusivity.
It's false doctrine and doesn't work well with the rest of the Bible.
1) Mark 16:16 - He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved, he that believeth not shall be condemned
What is the logical conclusion of this simple passage?
Baptism of the believer is a requirement to be saved.
mima said:The Church of Christ believes that water baptism is absolutely necessary for salvation. Therefore if a person believes that baptism is a "work"(anything in addition to beliveving) that places the Church of Christ denomination among those who believe, in works, that something extra is needed. It is just that simple, either you believe that work s something extar is needed for salvation or you believe what the Bible says, that none will be justified in the eyes of God by works.
ccrobinson said:[/b]
Your logic is false from the very beginning.
This is what we find in the first half of the verse.
Belief + baptism = salvation
Here's the 2nd half.
No belief = no salvation
Belief and salvation are found in both halves, but baptism is only in the first half. Salvation is contingent upon belief, not baptism.
bmerr said:carpro,
bmer here. Peter either "lied", or "forgot" to mention baptism while under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, (which would mean that God was at fault), or, perhaps he said the same thing in a different way.
Notice the similarities between Acts 2:38, and 3:19.
Both are preceded by the presentation of the gospel.
Both contain the command to repent.
Both speak of the removal (remission - blotting out) of sins.
Both are in the context of what is commonly referred to as an "invitation".
Now, honestly, why would Peter preach the same gospel to a group of the same people (Jews), and command a different response? He wouldn't.
He simply said the same thing using different words.
In Christ,
bmerr
carpro said:"He simply said the same thing using different words."
You accuse me of not dealing with the verses you quote and this is how you dealt Acts 3:19?![]()
Now you start throwing around the litte Greek preposition "eis" again, however now you want it to mean "unto" and "into" and "in" but reject those meanings entirely in Acts 2:38, instead opting for "for" because it suits your purpose.
I agree that the scriptures do not conflict with each other in
Rom 10:9-10 , Acts 2:38, 3:19, 22:16, 17:30," etc, etc." unless one interprets them to mean that baptism is required for salvation.
Christ clearly stated to several individuals that their faith had saved them without mentioning baptism. Did He also misspeak himself?
carpro said:I was expecting the "old covenent" or "old testament" crutch to come out at just about this time.
It, of course, had to be that way since there is no disputing that Christ never required baptism for salvation
instead baptizing with the Holy Spirit
as a result of faith only. "The faith that saved the individuals He spoke to was made known by their works, without which, faith is dead " is an incorrect statement. The faith that saved those that I spoke of was purely faith in Christ. No works involved at all.
bmerr said:carpro,
bmerr here. Sometimes it's hard to know where to start. I'll adress your post one point at a time, I guess.
Jesus never commanded baptism as a requirement for salvation before the cross. After the cross, (when the New Testament came into force - Heb 9:16-17) Jesus made this notable statement, "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned" (Mark 16:16).
This was promised, never commanded. And it was promised to the apostles (John 14:16-17, 26; 16:7-8, 13-15), not to believers of all time. The Scriptures only record it one time, and imply it one other time. It is recorded in Acts 2:2-4, and implied in the case of Paul.
The house of Cornelius is the only time anything like it ever took place aside from these, and Peter had to remember way back at the beginning (Acts 11:15) for something to compare it to.
It was to guarantee that the apostles would be an error-free witness of the things Jesus had done and said. Today, we have to study (2 Tim 2:15), since the Holy Spirit no longer guides anyone into all truth directly.
Example: Luke 7:50, "Thy faith hath saved thee; go in peace." How did Jesus know of her faith? What had she been doing up to this point?
In Christ,
bmerr
carpro said:Wow!
Quote:
instead baptizing with the Holy Spirit
"This was promised, never commanded. And it was promised to the apostles (John 14:16-17, 26; 16:7-8, 13-15), not to believers of all time. The Scriptures only record it one time, and imply it one other time. It is recorded in Acts 2:2-4, and implied in the case of Paul. "
It sounds as if you don't believe Christians are baptized with the Holy Spirit and you apparently are disregarding the words of John the Baptist.
Is that true?