Please note that I do not claim "annihilation" - whatever that means to you. I simply hold to the death of the wicked, which is the biblical language.But there is here no annihilation.
This is plain from Isa. ... 66:24.
"And they shall go forth,
and look upon the carcasses of the men
that have transgressed against me:
for their worm shall not die,
neither shall their fire be quenched;
and they shall be an abhorring unto all flesh."[/quote]
Yes. Jesus quoted this regarding the fate of the wicked. Please note that these persons are DEAD, since it refers to their corpses. And no one brushes off the fly larvae off of them or put out the fire that consumes their bodies. They die in shame and their bodies are consumed.
In other words, "death" doesn't REALLY mean death. That's not very respectful of scripture.(2) The description of this punishment as the "second death."
The "second death" corresponds
to the death of the race in Adam,
and not to physical death.
By this death man was unfitted for God's fellowship
and brought under the wrath of God,
but was not put beyond hope or the reach of God.
The "second death" brings the execution of the wrath of God
through "the continuation of spiritual death in another
and timeless existence" (E. G. Robinson);
This is a weird statement. If the sinner is currently spiritually dead, then he is spiritually dead. However, he is physically alive, so any claim of non-existence is delusional.Thus the "second death" no more implies non-existence
than does the sinner's present state of spiritual death.
When one physically dies, it is the first death. When one spiritually dies, it is the second death.
That's a reach. A more obvious interpretation is that they are sprinkled with fire, hastening their destruction.Mark 9:48, 49 shows clearly that the wicked in Gehenna
retain conscious existence.
"Salted with fire" may mean that the fire will have a preserving quality like salt.
The Beast is not human.(3) The declaration that unbelievers are to perish.
Luke 13:3; Acts 8:20; 1 Cor. 1:18.
But that this perishing does not denote annihilation
is proved by the fact that the Greek word in Acts 8:20
is the same word used to describe the perdition of the Beast
(Rev. 17:8),
and we find that the Beast is still in the lake of fire
a thousand years later (Rev. 20:10).
But a dead one can.An annihilated being can never afterward be anywhere.
Yes, but the Beast is not human, and the straw man of "annihilation" is working overtime here.(4) The representation
of the final punishment of the wicked as destruction.
Rom. 9:22; 2 Thess. 1:9. The Greek word in Rom. 9:22
is the same as the one for perdition in Rev. 17:8,
which does not express annihilation,
as we have just pointed out above.
1 Corinthians 5:5 is about the literal destruction of the body unto death so that one's spirit might be saved.And the Greek word in 2 Thess. 1:9
is the same as the one used
for the destruction of the carnal nature in 1 Cor. 5:5;
and we know that the carnal nature
is not annihilated in this life.
People die all the time. Perhaps they are not "annihilated" (whatever that means to you), but that has never been the point.
Who has made that claim? Persons will receive punishment for their deeds before they die. Death is the END of the punishment, not the beginning.Finally, the fact that there are to be degrees of punishment,
because of which it will be "more tolerable"
for some than for others (Matt. 11:20-24),
shows that the final punishment of the sinner is not annihilation;
for in such a case all sinners would suffer the same penalty...
Every wicked person being tormented for eternity sounds essentially like the same punishment....and it would be nonsense to speak of annihilation
as being more tolerable for some than for others.
Luke 12:48 reads:
And that servant, which knew his lord’s will, and prepared not himself, neither did according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes. But he that knew not, and did commit things worthy of stripes, shall be beaten with few stripes. For unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall be much required: and to whom men have committed much, of him they will ask the more.
If eternal conscious torment is valid doctrine, how can the ignorant servant only receive A FEW stripes (lashings)?
It is clear that both you and the guy you are quoting extensively does not understand the doctrine of conditional immortality. Stop relying on other people to do your thinking for you. Go back and study the scriptures for yourself and evaluate what other people write in terms of the scripture.
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