Featured Context of Acts 13:48

@unprofitable,
God knows all out comes. But the Son who is also fully God deliberately does not. Mark 13:32, Acts of the Apostles 1:7. Another example, John 14:6, John 1:18, Genesis 22:12. Remember what is not possible for man is possible for God. That is why there is the Son of God. They are the same God, not the same person. See also Hebrews 1:3.

 

Thanks for the contribution. I have been trying to keep my points isolated to the Father and his decrees/ordaining. Jeremiah 1:5

 

Posts 2,4 and 15 were directly about the context. Maybe you would like to enlighten us all instead of coming on periodically like some kind of elementary teacher with a red pencil. Just what is the context?

 

So you think that God the Son is not omniscient? You base this off these single, isolated, verses:
*Mark 13:32*
“But concerning that day or that hour, no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.
*Acts 1:7*
He said to them, “It is not for you to know times or seasons that the Father has fixed by his own authority.
*John 14:6*
Jesus said to him, “I am the way, and the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me.
*John 1:18*
No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father’s side, he has made him known.
*Genesis 22:12*
He said, “Do not lay your hand on the boy or do anything to him, for now I know that you fear God, seeing you have not withheld your son, your only son, from me.”
*Hebrews 1:3-4*
He is the radiance of the glory of God and the exact imprint of his nature, and he upholds the universe by the word of his power. After making purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, having become as much superior to angels as the name he has inherited is more excellent than theirs.

Here is a good article to read, entitled Was Jesus Omniscient While On Earth. In it there are three arguments suggested.

There are three possible interpretations[7] of Jesus not knowing the time of his second coming:

1. Jesus continued to exercise some dimensions of omniscience while on earth and the full exercise of his omniscience was subject to God the Father’s parameters;
2. Jesus never failed to function on the level of the moral attributes, but frequently does not display the amoral attributes such as omniscience as these seemed to be subject to the guidance of the Holy Spirit and come to the human conscious level at the Spirit’s choosing (Dan Wallace’s view).
3. In his incarnation, Jesus laid aside the use of his attribute of omniscience.

I hold to number 1 until further information is received and further understanding is achieved. Why? That there were times when Jesus’ omniscience was deferred to another member of the Godhead is obvious from Jesus not knowing the time of his second coming. However, my understanding is that this is a function of omniscience in the Godhead. It is not meant to deny Jesus’ omniscience while on earth.

I will not have fullest understanding of how the Trinitarian God’s omniscience functions until I’m in his presence. I wonder if that will be an issue then.

 

The context as I understand it is the bringing in of the gentiles into the kingdom of God by ordination/will/predestination of the Father. This is related in that he declared the end from the beginning (prophesy) and therefore knew/determined that by which he would accomplish it. He did not need to prepare for someone he may have missed which is what I understand some of the brethren to seem to be saying. Jeremiah was known, sanctified and ordained a prophet before he was even born. This is reinforced throughout the bible.

 

So, you don't think the future is fixed. Can you explain Daniel 10, Daniel 11, and Daniel 12 then, since you don't think the future is fixed.

God has a plan, but it's not a fixed plan. Is that correct?

Where do we see the salvation of those who are free? Do you toss away the scripture that says all humans are slaves to sin? Do you throw out the foreshadowing of redemption from slavery to Pharaoh in Egypt to slavery to God at Mt Sinai for God's chosen people? Did the redeemed Hebrews freely choose God or did God choose to freely redeem a people who were bound in slavery?

 

I read the whole chapter before replying. In my first post, #11, I said, " Acts 13:48 is part of the fulfillment of OT prophesy/predestination of the gentiles being brought into the kingdom of God.

The subject goes from verse 46 through verse 49 with the focus on verse 48 which details the rejecting of the gospel of the kingdom by the Jews and the turning to the gentiles by Paul and Barnabas, who gladly received it. All scripture is related to the command to seek ye first the kingdom of God and his righteousness in the face of Christ our Lord.

I will only follow other commentary if I believe it to be contrary to the scriptures whether in context or not.

 

It is my understanding all that is said and done by God is by means of His Son per John 1:3 includes the giving of Scripture.

 

Paul was commissioned to go to the gentiles but he always started with his own people. And he had access to Jewish synagogues. He had had some success with some Jews apparently (vs.43) but other Jews seemed to have problems with what Paul was saying but also with the idea that a bunch of gentiles had shown up. You find a general belief among Jews at that time that salvation had nothing to do with gentiles unless they became proselyte Jews.

Paul rebukes these Jews and makes sure they understand they are responsible for their lack of belief. This made the gentiles happy and many of them believed. Like I said before, this was not primarily a lesson in predestination. But "appointed" is there and it sticks out like a sore thumb if you try to ignore it.

Notice. The Jews are clearly charged with responsibility for their own unbelief. And I think "appointed" here is to mainly give validity to the idea that this is God's will that gentiles can be equal in Christ. It was part of a plan. It is not attacking individual responsibility because that is emphasized in reference to the Jews.

 

Follow off context to challenge.

 

Trying to stay on point to the context of this particular OP.

2 Timothy 3:16

I will ask a few more questions of Silverhair and his colleagues. If it was preordained that the gentiles would be part of the kingdom, how could that future occurrence not have been a fixed matter?

Who established the future that God could look into it and see that the gentiles would be part of the kingdom?

If you answer God and then say the future can change, how do we relate him saying, I am the Lord, I change not? Mal 3:6 Do you think he would have changed his mind and not let the gentiles into the kingdom since they would make up so significant part of it?

Or was that planned from the foundation of the world and unchangeable?

Just trying to keep in context of the kingdom.

 

@Revmitchell ,
I addressed the context in post #4. It is now post #59. Please stop grandstanding and make your point.

 

When you ask “does the future change independently of God or does he direct it?” I have to ask have you thought it through. If we go with your logic of A=C then what we have is that God directs all that happens as in “no rogue molecule” or the LBCF Chp 3 Sec 1 which necessitates that God is ultimately the responsible one for all actions good or bad. As I have said before God knowing what will happen does not require that He cause it to happen.

The question becomes what is Gods good pleasure? For that we need to look in the NT

(1Ti 2:3) This is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior,
(1Ti 2:4) who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.

What is Gods’ good pleasure? The salvation of man through His son Christ Jesus

As for your mathematical principle. Numbers do not think or make choices based upon available information. Equations are not held responsible for the outcome whereas man is held responsible for the choices they make.

So you are saying God saved you before you believed in Christ Jesus. That is not even close to being a biblical idea.

Ezekiel 36:25-27
I will sprinkle clean water upon you — The expression here alludes to those legal purifications which were made by sprinkling water upon the unclean persons. But the cleansing brought forward to the NT is plainly that of the soul, by the blood of Christ sprinkled upon men’s consciences to take away their guilt, (Hebrews_9:14; Hebrews_12:24,) and by the grace of the Holy Spirit sprinkled on the whole soul, to purify it from all corrupt inclinations and dispositions; both which blessings are received by faith in Christ, and in the promises of God made through him. Benson

One is renewed by faith in Christ Jesus not so that they will have faith in Christ Jesus.

God is omniscient but I did not say He "needs" to give grace I said He does give grace. Why would you think He would not do so? God knowing all possible outcomes still does not require that He determine the outcome which is the position that you seem to be driving toward. But have you looked at the whole picture here? If God determines all those that will be saved He has also determined all those that will be lost as He has excluded them from the possibility of being saved. That is the logical outcome of determinism.

Curious why you would think that a omniscient God would not know what man will freely do? Do you think that if God gives His grace to all and all do not come to faith then His grace is wasted?