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Continuing the eschatology

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asterisktom

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I am leaving the place where I have Internet so I must be brief for now. My one question is why did you dare to add to the verse you quoted? Nowhere does Acts 1:11 say "physical".

That is a fact.

Yes, He rose physically from the grave. But not a single verse in Scripture says He was to return physically.
 

John of Japan

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J. Barton Payne's "Theology of the Older Testament" was our primary textbook for OT Theology when I was working on my Th.M. It was what started me thinking about Dispensational Theology and nudged me more toward Historic Premillennialism as opposed to Dispensational Premillennialism. But I am sure you will forgive him for that, :D
Aw shucks. I guess so.

PS, the man was a prolific writer. He published dozens of works, not one of which was a "pop psychology" exercise in shallowness. At least three that I know of were published in "Bibliotheca Sacra" (The publishing Journal for Dallas Theological Seminary) and at least ten were published in the "Bulletin of the Evangelical Theological Society."
A true scholar. We knew his boy Peter when we lived in Wheaton in the '50's and early '60's. He's got a pretty good apologetics ministry to college students nowadays.

Of great interest as it pertains to this discussion is "The Goal of Daniel's Seventy Weeks" as published in the Bulletin of the Evangelical Theological Society. It can be found here:

http://www.etsjets.org/files/JETS-PDFs/21/21-2/21-2-pp097-115_JETS.pdf
I'll check it out. Thanks.
 

TCassidy

Late-Administator Emeritus
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Clement of Rome
Hmmmm. So every bible scholar and ever church historian is wrong about Clement? His famous epistle is customarily dated to the end of the reign of Domitian (95 or 96 C.E.).

Since chap. 5 speaks of the Neronian persecution as something long past, the persecutions of Domitian (the Tyrant) are all that fits.

If I thought you actually either (a) cared or (b) will remember it then I will dig that file up in its entirety and share it with you.
I can't speak for John but I would be interested in this information. Of course, without the snide and insulting insinuation that we don't care or will not remember it. Of course we won't remember it if you refuse to post it. :)
 

John of Japan

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Why must the return of Christ have to accommodate to your understanding, John? How many times have we read in the NT about the spiritual nature of the coming Kingdom (it doesn't come with observation, not eating and drinking but righteousness,peace, and joy in the Holy Spirit, etc.)? First the natural, then the spiritual. (I'll let you find the references.
This does not answer the question. All you are saying is that the first coming of Christ was physical but the second coming is spiritual, you are not telling why. And you are conflating the doctrine of the Kingdom of God with the 2nd coming. That's poor theology.
This is another question that I have answered many times - and on this board too. And yet someone like you comes up and acts as if you shut our mouths. Here it is - again:
1.Many of the supposedly post AD70 writers were actually preAD70 . Clement of Rome and the writer/s of the Didache come on this category.

Besides, I am not sure what you would accept as evidence.
Nice try, but I've read some of Clement and I've read the Didache. J. R. Lightfoot (The Apostolic Fathers, p. 11) and plenty of other scholars put Clement's epistle to the Corinthians at AD 95. You stated your date for Clement as if it were fact, with no proof whatsoever. As for the Didache (likewise dated to AD 100 or after), the author was a literalist, writing, "The Lord shall come and all His saints with Him. Then shall the world see the Lord coming upon the clouds of Heaven" (ibid, 129).
2. There were a couple writers who did say He came then. If I thought you actually either (a) cared or (b) will remember it then I will dig that file up in its entirety and share it with you.
I do care, and you've never said this in all of our discussions of the past. If you have someone in the early church who said Christ came in AD 70, trot them out and I'll listen.
"Don't read that junk. Read our junk!" Let's focus on the Bible, shall we and not rely on Drs. XYZ.
That goes without saying. I'm a Baptist: "The Bible as the sole rule of faith and practice."
Much of the problem of modern Christianity is that we really too much on Bible commentaries and not enough on the Bible itself. At the very least, when we read all these "helps" (with or without quotes) we should be wide-ranging in our study, considering the insight from various ages and backgrounds of Christianity - not just the last century or two. I know for a matter of fact that much of what I believe I believed late in life merely because I was not aware of other options. You read those folks you quote above and you will get basically minor variations on the same narrow eschatological bandwidth.

And a wrong one at that.
To be a preterist, one has to abandon the Biblical teaching of the vast majority of believers of all the ages of Christianity. If your preterism is correct, it is very strange that you are in such a tiny majority when so many of the rest of us love the Word of God and study it daily. Seems like the Holy Spirit would illumine the Scriptures to more than just a tiny minority of believers.
 
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John of Japan

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I am leaving the place where I have Internet so I must be brief for now. My one question is why did you dare to add to the verse you quoted? Nowhere does Acts 1:11 say "physical".

That is a fact.

Yes, He rose physically from the grave. But not a single verse in Scripture says He was to return physically.
Jesus said, "And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also" (John 14:3). Now, if hyper preterism is correct and Jesus came spiritually in AD 70, we have a huge problem: Jesus left His physical body in Heaven!

Do you believe that Jesus rose bodily, physically, from the grave? If so, since He rose bodily, physically from the grave, why would He not fulfill the promise of John 14:3 and Acts 1:11 in a bodily, physical way?
 

agedman

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1After these things I saw another angel coming down from heaven, having great authority, and the earth was illumined with his glory. 2And he cried out with a mighty voice, saying, “Fallen, fallen is Babylon the great! She has become a dwelling place of demons and a prison of every unclean spirit, and a prison of every unclean and hateful bird. 3“For all the nations have drunk of the wine of the passion of her immorality, and the kings of the earth have committed acts ofimmorality with her, and the merchants of the earth have become rich by the wealth of her sensuality.” ...

20“Rejoice over her, O heaven, and you saints and apostles and prophets, because God has pronounced judgment for you against her.”
Did this actually ever occur at 70 AD, or anytime before or after?


Or what of this?

11And I saw heaven opened, and behold, a white horse, and He who sat on it is called Faithful and True, and in righteousness He judges and wages war. 12His eyes are a flame of fire, and on His head are many diadems; and He has a name written on Him which no one knows except Himself. ...

20And the beast was seized, and with him the false prophet who performed the signs in his presence, by which he deceived those who had received the mark of the beast and those who worshiped his image; these two were thrown alive into the lake of fire which burns with brimstone. 21And the rest were killed with the sword which came from the mouth of Him who sat on the horse, and all the birds were filled with their flesh.“


How can large passages even greater in length be so easily assigned as having happened when there is no factual evidence to show the events took place?
 

Yeshua1

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Please answer the question I asked on the other thread, which no preterist has ever answered for me. If all of the prophecies of Christ's first coming, the incarnation, were fulfilled literally (Bethlehem house of David, etc.), why must the prophecies of the 2nd Coming be fulfilled "spiritually"?

And another question I asked that was never answered: where is the evidence that Jesus came in AD 70? Give one single quote from an early Christian which says so. Otherwise you, along with other preterists, are making up things.

You would be much more convincing if you quit reading junk theology such as what you've mentioned, and read serious stuff from the premil side: Things to Come by Pentecost, Encyclopedia of Biblical Prophecy by J. Barton Payne (historical premil), Dispensationalism by Ryrie, Revelation by Walvoord, and other important works.

Simply because you never went to college does not mean you cannot get a serious education in eschatology through self study, something you've not yet done.
And though you deny it, all scholars agree that futurism has been around since the first centuries of Christianity. "Even so, come, Lord Jesus."

So much for the claim that you're here to learn. :Rolleyes

Again, you sadly misinterpret my mention of degrees. I nowhere attacked you for your lack of degrees. I have known some great Christians with only a high school diploma. My point (and that of Dr. Cassidy) was to give credence to my position as one that is well thought out and valid, just as Paul did when he disclosed to a Jewish audience his training under Gamaliel, the greatest scholar of the Jewish law of the whole first century (Acts 22:5).

And for the record, Keil and Delitzsch were not preterists, so you have completely misunderstood and misrepresented their position.
I am still looking for where in recorded history Jesus returned , and had the resurrection of the saints, and Him reigning here on earth in paradise restored!
 

tyndale1946

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Hmmmm. So every bible scholar and ever church historian is wrong about Clement? His famous epistle is customarily dated to the end of the reign of Domitian (95 or 96 C.E.).

Since chap. 5 speaks of the Neronian persecution as something long past, the persecutions of Domitian (the Tyrant) are all that fits.

I can't speak for John but I would be interested in this information. Of course, without the snide and insulting insinuation that we don't care or will not remember it. Of course we won't remember it if you refuse to post it. :)

You brethren know me I've been on here awhile, as the old saying goes you cannot teach an old dog new tricks... Well this old dog learned some... While I do agree with the Preterist Camp of what befell the Jews and believe it according to the writings of Josephus and others, according to those Vespasian paused during the onslaught and let those who didn't want to fight escape... The Christians to my understanding escaped to Petra... To me this is important because the fight was with the Jews not the Christians... I agree with TC on John writing the Revelation during the reign of Domitian. Although some want to point to Nero and say this is definitely him... Nero was long gone from the scene having committed suicide in 68 AD... Out of his death came The Nero Ricidivism Myth that Nero would return from the dead at the head of the Parthian army who The Roman Empire never defeated in battle... I will not insult your intelligence on here go look into it for yourselves.

Now I very seldom get into these discussions but you are probably asking yourself, what changed my view?... A friend of mine who has been a minister over 60 years posed this question in one of his articles... He said in Revelation 1 thru 3 we are introduced to the Seven Churches Of Asia and what each of them are facing... In Chapter 4 a new drama is presented as a door is open in heaven... When that door is open do you suddenly open our mind to a new view or is John still addressing the 1st Century Christians under the demonic persecution of the tyrannical Emperor Domitian and the Roman Council which gives him his power... Another interesting side note is that John used a style of writing that is used in the OT... Apocalyptic Symbolic Style, which is used in Ezekiel, Isaiah, Zachariah, and Daniel... I don't know about anyone else on here but Revelation has The Roman Empire written all over it... So that is where I stand now and like I say check it out for yourselves... Some on here will still think where did this nut job come from?... I've been on here off and on for 16 years and I think I've heard it all... Very few things surprise me now... Brother Glen:)
 

Yeshua1

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I am leaving the place where I have Internet so I must be brief for now. My one question is why did you dare to add to the verse you quoted? Nowhere does Acts 1:11 say "physical".

That is a fact.

Yes, He rose physically from the grave. But not a single verse in Scripture says He was to return physically.
So the Angels that told them that this SAME Jesus would come back in same way that he left were wrong?

And Jesus still has His nail scarred hands even in heaven today!
 

Yeshua1

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Jesus said, "And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also" (John 14:3). Now, if hyper preterism is correct and Jesus came spiritually in AD 70, we have a huge problem: Jesus left His physical body in Heaven!

Do you believe that Jesus rose bodily, physically, from the grave? If so, since He rose bodily, physically from the grave, why would He not fulfill the promise of John 14:3 and Acts 1:11 in a bodily, physical way?
Many base this concept of Jesus having a spiritual body, and us also, and so he came back spiritually from 1 Cor 15, with Paul telling us of the spiritual body. The problem with that is that Paul did NOT mean that Jesus and ud were no longer in a physical form, but that iur normal flesh stae had to become glorified in order to get to and stay in heaven, and that was still a pjysical body!
 

agedman

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Many base this concept of Jesus having a spiritual body, and us also, and so he came back spiritually from 1 Cor 15, with Paul telling us of the spiritual body. The problem with that is that Paul did NOT mean that Jesus and ud were no longer in a physical form, but that iur normal flesh stae had to become glorified in order to get to and stay in heaven, and that was still a pjysical body!

You and I have remarkably similar hand writing.

Are you using an iPad like device, too?

I am always having to correct what the iPad has assumed was what I wanted to type. :)
 

John of Japan

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Many base this concept of Jesus having a spiritual body, and us also, and so he came back spiritually from 1 Cor 15, with Paul telling us of the spiritual body. The problem with that is that Paul did NOT mean that Jesus and ud were no longer in a physical form, but that iur normal flesh stae had to become glorified in order to get to and stay in heaven, and that was still a pjysical body!
Exactly! Preterism says Christ came spiritually in AD 70. But Christ now has a physical body--this is a fundamental of the faith. So in order to come "spiritually" Christ had to split Himself. Furthermore, if Christ came spiritually, that would be His deity, would it not? The doctrine of the hypostatic union mitigates against splitting the deity and humanity of Christ. Christ comes physically or not at all.
 

John of Japan

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prophecy70 told me some time ago that I had to prove that the early church "fathers" (pastors) were premillennial. It wasn't enough to him that I said that all scholars agree on this. Today in between meetings of our youth summit I've been tracking down some of those original sources, and will share them here.

Dwight Pentecost gives literally dozens of men in the first 3 centuries who were premil (Things to Come, pp. 374-375), pointing out that in those three centuries not a single writer was anything else. Augustine (354-430) was the first amil type. And there were no preterists at all!

Here is the Didache, from about AD 100 (J. R. Lightfoot's translation, par. 16):

"And then the world-deceiver shall appear as a son of God; and shall work signs and wonders, and the earth shall be delivered into his hands; and he shall do unholy things, which have never been since the world began. Then all created mankind shall come to the fire of testing, and many shall be offended and perish; but they that endure in their faith shall be saved by the Curse Himself. And then shall the signs of the truth appear; first a sign of a rift in the heaven, then a sign of a voice of a trumpet, and thirdly a resurrection of the dead; yet not of all, but as it was said: The Lord shall come and all His saints with Him. Then shall the world see the Lord coming upon the clouds of Heaven."
 
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John of Japan

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Here is Clement's 2nd Epistle (Schaff's translation, I believe, accessed through Bibloi 8.0)

"4 For the Lord said, I come to gather together all the nations, tribes, and languages. Herein He speaketh of the day of His appearing, when He shall come and redeem us, each man according to his works. 5 And the unbelievers shall see His glory and His might: and they shall be amazed when they see the kingdom of the world given to Jesus."

2 Clement 17.4-5
 

Yeshua1

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Exactly! Preterism says Christ came spiritually in AD 70. But Christ now has a physical body--this is a fundamental of the faith. So in order to come "spiritually" Christ had to split Himself. Furthermore, if Christ came spiritually, that would be His deity, would it not? The doctrine of the hypostatic union mitigates against splitting the deity and humanity of Christ. Christ comes physically or not at all.
This concept of Jesus shedding off his physical form to go back to heaven and then to earth sounds more like JW seeing him as being raised spiritual as Michael again, and having an invisible return!
 

John of Japan

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Polycarp (69-155) was a disciple of the Apostle John. He wrote:

“For if we be well pleasing unto Him in this present world, we shall receive the future world also, according as He promised us to raise us from the dead, and that if we conduct ourselves worthily of Him we shall also reign with Him, if indeed we have faith.” (Epistle to the Philippians, Lightfoot trans., par. 5).
 

Yeshua1

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prophecy70 told me some time ago that I had to prove that the early church "fathers" (pastors) were premillennial. It wasn't enough to him that I said that all scholars agree on this. Today in between meetings of our youth summit I've been tracking down some of those original sources, and will share them here.

Dwight Pentecost gives literally dozens of men in the first 3 centuries who were premil (Things to Come, pp. 374-375), pointing out that in those three centuries not a single writer was anything else. Augustine (354-430) was the first amil type. And there were no preterists at all!

Here is the Didache, from about AD 100 (J. R. Lightfoot's translation, par. 16):

"And then the world-deceiver shall appear as a son of God; and shall work signs and wonders, and the earth shall be delivered into his hands; and he shall do unholy things, which have never been since the world began. Then all created mankind shall come to the fire of testing, and many shall be offended and perish; but they that endure in their faith shall be saved by the Curse Himself. And then shall the signs of the truth appear; first a sign of a rift in the heaven, then a sign of a voice of a trumpet, and thirdly a resurrection of the dead; yet not of all, but as it was said: The Lord shall come and all His saints with Him. Then shall the world see the Lord coming upon the clouds of Heaven."
Think that pretty much all church historians would agree that a solid majority of them held to a premil view, and that was prominennt until, time of Augustine and his allegorical prophetic system coming into place!
 

FollowTheWay

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I believe jesus came In judgement in AD 70. Thats what the whole topic was about the apostate jews. To read anything else into that is taking it to far. God came on the clouds many times in the OT. This generation will not pass.. You can't take one use of generation and say it means something else, when the rest of the whole time he spoke he was talking about the present generation. Why in one verse just to fit your view does the word change? Every eye is literal but generation is something else?

Jesus prediction was right. The world saw the SIGN of the son of man in the heaven, and the "whole world" saw the coming of Jesus in judgement on Jerusalem.. No SCIFI Horses and meteors, no Beasts. No StarWars type stuff, It hasn't happened before it won't happen in the future.

Futurists have been spreading the same stuff for years, and all have failed. And the books they write are ridiculous, ufos, armageddon, the birth of Israel, rapture to happen before 1988. Its all lunacy. Its why there is a book out called "why I'm not a Christian". Its preconceived knowledge to fit a understanding. I was there once, have all the left behind movies, all the books. It was interesting to me because I was into that SCIFI stuff. Until I realized wow, unless I believe the antichrist in Daniel 9:27, it really does not say that. Even the K&D commentary admits that clearly.

I feel a lot better now, knowing Jesus is already victorious, we don't need to wait until Hell on earth is unleashed for him to win, he already did, satan is powerless against us.

Im not a newspaper christian anymore, waiting for a firecracker to go off in the middle east, and getting the Bible out saying here it is. Its been like that since futurism was around.

No one is going to convince me otherwise, just like I won't convince you otherwise. But we can still continue the conversations, Even if my lack of earthy "degrees" is questioned. Since being on here Ive learned more then I have in a long time. So thank you all, Even JOJ for the commentary that fits my view :)


So please by all means, someone else get a topic/verse going to discuss. I don't want my uneducated Millennial problems (right JOJ?) to get in the way here. And for heaven sake, please don't let this topic be 38 posts of how to define star, or it will be 38 posts on the history of the western wall, and how it was not the western wall of the temple. :Wink

How did you make out in the Judgment? Or don't you believe that everyone who ever lived (past, present, and future) will be judged by the Lord? Is there a heaven? Was there a second covenant? Just curious.
 

agedman

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Polycarp (69-155) was a disciple of the Apostle John. He wrote:

“For if we be well pleasing unto Him in this present world, we shall receive the future world also, according as He promised us to raise us from the dead, and that if we conduct ourselves worthily of Him we shall also reign with Him, if indeed we have faith.” (Epistle to the Philippians, Lightfoot trans., par. 5).


Polycarp was martyred around 155AD if I recall correctly. He was over 86 years old, which using 2nd grade math skills would make his birth somewhere near the year 69 AD.

The point being that being a student of John would have placed him after the supposed return of Christ, yet he was pre-mill.

Something is wrong with my math, or something wrong with preterist scheme.

I was promoted out of 2nd grade. :)
 
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