glfredrick
New Member
You really need to be careful tossing around your grenades GLF. You level the charge that translators just want to make people happy because the folks have itching ears. You lack discernment. Don't charge the translation team with ungodly motives.
Is there another scholarly reason for inclusive genders in a text where the gender of the original language is very clear?
This is Galatians 4:1-7 in the 2011 NIV. Notice how it differs from the TNIV.
What I am saying is that as long as an heir is underage,he is no different from a slave,although he owns the whole estate. The heir is subject to guardians and trustees until the time set by his father. So also,when we were underage,we were in slavery under the elemental spiritual forces of the world. But when the set time had fully come,God sent his Son,born of a woman,born under the law,to redeem those under the law,that we might receive adoption to sonship. Because you are his sons,God sent the Spirit who calls out,Abba,Father. So you are no longer a slave,but God's child;and since you are his child,God has made you also an heir.
I believe that all the current translations have "Abba, Father." That is not my point, and I did cite the NIV 2011 above, at least that was the copyright. I also cited the HCSB and the TNIV. I take odds with the places where "son" or "he" is changed to "child" or "children". That is NOT what the text says, and in this case, making one out to be a mere "child" and not a "son" (male) negates the claim to be an heir with Christ, for SONS are heirs, daughters are not.
When God calls us a "son" and refers to us as "he" in this particular passage, He is making a bold statement about our position in a legal sense, not our gender, and the luggage dare not be gender neutral and retain the integrity of the passage. The assumption that "son" and "he" means all people is gathered from context in the surrounding pericope, but the passage itself needs to be masculine in order for the promise to be true.