Well it would certainly be an interesting discussion, probably for another thread.
Probably, and I'd love to discuss it with you.
So let's forget the "inherited" part, since you don't believe it anyway.
Let's look at Christ as he is called the last Adam.
Then we get:
"Adam sinned
The last Adam did not sin".
So what was the difference between both if not nature?
I put your question in italics because that's what I'm keying in on.
I have a guess:
It was the Holy Spirit.
I would assert three things in answer to your question:
1.)
I don't have to discover an answer to that question.....because I am not claiming to know the answer as to "how" Christ successfully lived without sin. I don't think God's word makes it abundantly clear.
2.) I believe if you read the gospels closely...you will find that the Holy Spirit was EXTREMELY active in the redemptive work of Christ.
I believe it was through the Holy Spirit that he cast out the demons from the maniac of Gadara.
Notice: When Christ was accused of consulting the power of "Baalzebub"...he didn't respond by saying: "No, I'm not really a human...I'm just God in a costume, and I have that kind of power because docetism is true, and I totally rock."
No, he told them that it would be the unforgivable sin to "blaspheme" the Holy Spirit.....a statement which not only immediately confirms the personality of the Holy Spirit, and the Deity of the Holy Spirit, but also affirms the true humanity of Christ.
Jesus didn't claim to have cast out those demons because he was God in a costume....
He attributed the empowerment to the work of the Holy Spirit.
3.) If the Holy Spirit was so active in the gospel work of Christ, it was probably his influence which helped him overcome the temptation of sin.
I believe if you read the gospels, the writers absolutely pepper the text with references to the Holy Spirit being conciously active in the life of Christ over and over. We tend to gloss over those references.....but the text is overwhelmed with such references.
Especially when we compare the birth of any Adam as: I was shapen in iniquity (Ps.51:5) VS the birth of Christ as The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee (Lk.1:35).
Thus man's sinfulness is apparently attributed to an unclean birth/nature (Job 14:1-4 Who can bring a clean thing out of an unclean? not one) whereas Christ's sinless is apparently attributed to a clean and supernatural birth/nature.
I understand and appreciate your drive Theologically towards explaining the Universality of sin towards something like a "nature".....and the history behind it as an explanation.
We can't flush it all out here for now, but suffice it say.
i admit, I reject it actually, and wholeheartedly.
I didn't always.
While MAYBE there's something to it, the Scriptures (IMO) do not teach the idea sufficiently to accept it.
I hardly think you are out of your mind for thinking as you do....most modern fundamental Christians do think SOMETHING...SOMETHING....happened to mankind after the fall which rendered them predisposed towards sin....
I don't.
I think nothing has to have "happened" to man (or any of Adam's progeny) to render sin Universal.
I think we all would have made the same wrong choice.
I don't feel forced to seek an explanation.
I won't belabour it anymore here, but someday in a thread maybe
It would be worthwhile and helpful.
I appreciate your wisdom on these subjects.
I don't always agree with you 100%...but you are a man of wisdom I.M.O.
God bless brother![