I understand your explanation completely! However, your explanation has nothing to do with John 6:29-71 - nothing at all. You have simply taken truths related to other contexts and vainly attempted to force it upon this context.
That is not true, nor is it a legitimate defense, to state a personal opinion is not to prove anything. It is all you have though.
In this particular context Jesus is describing and characterizing the nature of saving faith which has no ethnic boundaries or limitations but is what it is regardless of whom it is applied unto and regardless of the ethnicity of the audiance being addressed.
Jesus at the time was only speaking to the Jews, only later were people of your nationality could be included, when Jesus was lifted up.
Jesus was speaking only to Jews. In John chapter 6, the chapter in which we are discussing, the people Jesus was speaking to called him “Rabbi”. Only the Jews called their teachers “Rabbi” v. 25. The people spoke of “our Fathers’ v. 31, the Jews were the only people who called the Patriarchs ‘Father’. Jesus spoke of Moses v. 32; Moses was leader of the Jews, not Gentiles, or Greeks. The scripture in John chapter 6 even says in relation to whom Jesus was speaking, “The Jews” v. 41, and again, “The Jews” v. 52.
Do you still not understand that Jesus was only speaking to the Jews at that time?
Your explanation is fundementally incorrect.
No. Your explanation is incorrect.
No human being is born with love for God as Jesus plainly says in John 3:17 as all human beings are born "condemned already" and all are born in UNBELIEF and all are by nature lovers of darkness and hater's of light (Jn. 3:18-20) because that is the essence of the sinful nature they are born with when they come into this world and it does not take long to see. Children NEVER need to be taught to do wrong as that comes NATURAL but they need to be taught to do RIGHT because that is UNNATURAL and comes only by DISCIPLINE of the sinful nature. This is a fundemental truth easily recognizable and obvious that you must deny to teach your absolute nonsenical "explanation." Those who do come to light come because of a transforming work of God within them - the new birth - Jn. 3:1-11; 21.
The scriptures you reference do not say what you say they do. No scriptures say what you do, that humans are totally depraved, that humans cannot believe in God after learning of Him.
Quote even just one scripture that says what you say. Quote even just one scripture that says, “No human can believe in God even after learning of Him.” Quote even just one scripture that says, “God gives the Holy Spirit to humans before they believe in Him.”
You cannot give one scripture that says any of those things; those things that your religion teaches as God’s truth are manufactured beliefs. Manufactured beliefs that got to be by adding scriptures together that are not understood in the first place.
Furthermore, the text says nothing about those who "love" God as the reason they come to Christ.
As I have been telling you, that you do not seem to be able to retain, is that they first loved God.
It says they must be "given" and must be "drawn" or else "no MAN CAN come." However, you change the languague to suit your false doctrines rather than transform your thinking to the language used by the Holy Spirit.
You give only false opinions of me, and you prove nothing. You dodge the scriptures; deny them, and then you even go against them.
Nicodemus could be born again by the Holy Spirit PRIOR to Pentecost contrary to your false "explanation" - Jn. 3:1-11
That is what you said in another thread. I told you that Nicodemus, as a leader of the Jews, should have known that the scriptures spoke of a time when people will be born of the Spirit, born again.
Nicodemus could be "saved" and have eternal life PRIOR to Pentecost contrary to your false "explanation" - Jn. 3:16 and so could anyone believing the gospel Jesus preached - Jn. 5:24.
The gospel of Jesus was not available as a Covenant until the New Testament times.
Your "explanation" of John 12 and drawing all men to himself is also contextually false. The immediate context shows this is a direct response to GENTILES coming to Christ and the words "all men" translated the Greek term "pas" which is found in the anarthous construct (no definite article) and means ALL CLASSES or KINDS of men of which the GENTILES are the subject of the immediate context
I am the one who explained to you that John 12:32 is about all men including Gentiles.
denying that salvation provided by Christ is restricted to Jews as your "explanation" asserts. Jesus saved Gentiles while on earth - (1) the Seraphoncian woman; (2) the Roman Centurian; and these Gentiles in John 12.
Where do the scriptures say the Seraphoncian woman was saved? Where does it say the Roman Centurion at that time was saved? Remember; do not add to the word of God.
Your mind is perverted by your false teachers and teaching so that you will not accept the inspired language of the Holy Spirit but CHANGE and PERVERT it to suit your own belly (desires).
You just described yourself, and you show whether or not if Jesus saved you.