John wrote about Jesus Christ. How do you think that John 3:16 says Jesus did not come first for the Jews? Go ahead try to answer that question.
The purpose of Matthew: Writing to a Jewish audience he presents Christ as Messiah, King of the Jews.
The purpose of Mark: Writing to Romans, he presents Christ as a servant.
The purpose of Luke: Writing to Greeks, he presents Christ as the perfect man .
The purpose of John: Writing to the world, he presents Christ as God.
His audience was the world in general. Unlike Matthew, who was proving to the Jews that Christ was indeed the Messiah, John's audience was the world, both Jew and Gentile, to show to all that Christ was God. John 3:16 is applicable to all, not just to the Jews, even though he was speaking to Nicodemus.
Even Paul, the Apostle to the Gentiles, often said that he came to the Jew first and also to the Greek (Rom.1:16). That doesn't mean that the Gentiles were neglected.
You have no idea about the truth I am speaking.
You are not speaking truth; you are speaking nonsense; misinterpreting the Word of God. Take a class in hermeneutics.
That was first for the Jew, then all men after Jesus was lifted up.
The Roman centurion, The Syrophoenician woman, the disciples themselves, were not saved until after the resurrection, or even after his death?? That is pure nonsense, and shows how you misinterpret the Bible.
Do you understand what first means? Does it mean forever the only ones? No. Did I ever say ‘first and only’? No. Why can you not fathom that first does not mean there will not be others? I have tried to explain this to you many times over the months that I have been here. What is blocking you from comprehending such common sense thinking about being first? If you only have one child and will have no more, do you introduce him or her as your first child? Does not the word ‘first’ conjure up the thought that there will be a second?
The verse says: "I am the door, by me if any man he shall be saved."
It doesn't specify who shall be saved. He says any man which includes both Jews and Gentiles. The same is true with John 3:16. "Whosoever believes in him shall not perish..." The "whosoever," the "any man" refers to any person whether Jew or Gentile. There were many Gentiles in the gospels that took the words of Jesus and were saved before the death of Jesus.
I comprehend the Word of God; you do not.
The Jews were first, and not just any and all the Jews, only the Jews who believed in God before Jesus came. This is about Jesus coming first for the lost sheep. Again, not all the Jews were considered the lost sheep of Israel.
This is false. There were many Gentiles that were saved. Anyone who believed in faith that Christ was the Messiah. There were many. Why can't you believe this? A Roman soldier believed, whose daughter was sick.
Why is the truth about this blocked from you? Is it something against the Jews being first that you cannot accept? Are you jealous? Was your nationality of people like the Jews who had the works of the law? Go read Leviticus and about all the offerings one had to do just to worship God. Read about all the rules and regulations. Did your nation of people the Gentiles do any of these works, can you even comprehend having to give Burnt Offerings; The Grain Offering; The Fellowship Offering; The Burnt Offering; the Sin Offering; The Guilt Offering; The Drink Offerings. Did your people observe the Feasts and Festivals? A seven day festival of Unleavened Bread; the festival of Harvest; the festival of Ingathering; the weekly sabbath (Lev 23:1-4) and seven annual feast days: Passover (7 days, incl. unleavened bread), First fruits, Pentecost or Weeks, the New Year, the Day of Atonement, the first day of Booths, and the eighth day of Booths (Lev 23:5-44)?
These offerings had nothing to do with salvation.
Jesus said very plainly:
I am the way the truth and the life; no man comes unto the Father but by me.
It is apparent you do not believe this verse.
What do you not get about the Jews were God’s people through the works of the law?
Are you a Calvinist? What do you not get that Whosoever means whosoever.
This is what Jesus said first for the Jew then to all men.
It is also what Paul said. But that did not exclude him from going to the Gentiles. Explain Romans 1:16
I do no such thing. You just do not understand.
It is not me that does not understand.
Matthew 10:5 These twelve Jesus sent out with the following instructions: "Do not go among the Gentiles or enter any town of the Samaritans.
Matthew 10:6 Go rather to the lost sheep of Israel.
Matthew 15:24 He answered, "I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel."
Acts 3:26 When God raised up his servant, he sent him first to you to bless you by turning each of you from your wicked ways."
Acts 13:46 Then Paul and Barnabas answered them boldly: "We had to speak the word of God to you first. Since you reject it and do not consider yourselves worthy of eternal life, we now turn to the Gentiles.
Romans 15:8 For I tell you that Christ has become a servant of the Jews on behalf of God's truth, to confirm the promises made to the patriarchs
Romans 2:10 but glory, honor and peace for everyone who does good: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile.
Romans 2:9 There will be trouble and distress for every human being who does evil: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile;
Romans 1:16 I am not ashamed of the gospel, because it is the power of God for the salvation of everyone who believes: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile.[/QUOTE]
What do these verses prove but that both Jews and Gentiles were given the gospel. What do you not understand about this?