IMO it is probably not best to translate it as foreordain in this passage, but I can see why the translators did that. As I said, ginosko carries the notion of intimate knowledge, and to have intimate knowledge of someone (know them personally) before they're born can easily be understood as something foreordained, whereas to simply have knowledge of something in advance (know they will exist and what they will do) could only be translated as foreknowledge.Originally posted by Doubting Thomas:
That the KJV translates (or "transliterates") it as "foreordain" doesn't prove anything...unless one is KJV-OnlyWhat matters is whether the TRANSLATION is justified by the meaning of the Greek.