wouldn't that then mean that Jesus had the same curse in His flesh as Adam? For the reason Adam physically died of old age was sin, correct? Otherwise, Adam would have never died.
I don't think so. Other things die because of the curse without the curse (and sin) having a direct impact on them. I believe Him to be sinless. I also believe that He died, and He rose again. If He could die of one thing I see no reason to think He could not die of another. Trusting in God's sovereignty and seeing Christ's obedience in Scripture I do not see the physical state of Christ in the flesh as the issue, but rather what God had planned for the redemption of His chosen people. The point is not that He died, but that He conquered it by His resurrection. The hows, whys, and wheres deal with prophecy and are important in the grand scheme of things but are beyond the scope of this discussion. I submit that if God planned for Him to die in another time, place, and by another method it would have happened, and it would have been prophesied accordingly.
I suppose that it all depends on how you think about Christ being both fully man and fully God. I would also suggest that while we have no answer the question does lead us to better see the limits of a finite mind searching the depths of our infinite God.