I am comfortable concluding that our disagreement is one of interpretation. We read exactly the same thing but come up with different conclusions. But no, this is not subordinating the clear teachings of Scripture. For me, determining that this separation occurred would be contrary to what I view as the clear teachings of Scripture. For you it is otherwise.Absolutely! The very reason that God will never forsake His redeemed people is that Christ has undergone their forsakenness (is there such a word?) on their behalf. This is the wonder of Penal Substitution. Christ has taken every part of my life and made it perfect (Rom.5:19), and He has also taken every part of my punishment upon Himself- the curse, the suffering, the separation- and borne it on my behalf, so that 'There is now therefore no condemnation to those who are in Christ Jesus' (Rom. 8:1). Because He was forsaken, no child of God will ever be forsaken.
When the Anabaptist Michael Sattler was condemned by the Romanist court to the most hideous torture and death, he made an agreement with some of his colleagues that in the midst of his torments, if God were with him, he would raise his hand as a sign. This he did. Our Lord could not do likewise. He faced His sufferings absolutely alone, so that sinners like Sattler, like you and like me, could know the felt presence of God in extremis.
Do you see here, brother how you are doing the very thing you seek not to do? You are subordinating the clear teaching of Scripture that Christ was forsaken by His Father on the cross, for the doctrine that you have espoused, that such a thing cannot be.
I would be interested also how you interpret the passages I offered (as well as the issues agedman mentioned). If you get time, perhaps you can address these so that I can understand your perspective (they are part of the reason we don't see eye to eye...not just this definition).
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