GraceSaves
New Member
I EDITED THIS AS I MISATTRIBUTED THIS TO DHK WHEN IT WAS NOT HIM!
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Eve is the mother of all living. That doesn't mean she didn't have other children besides Cain and Abel.Originally posted by DHK:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Kathryn:
Holy Scripture shows that Mary has a role as the mother of all of her son’s brethren. Jesus Christ is her firstborn and He would be the “firstborn among many brethren” Romans 8:29 You can accuse me of spiritualizing the gospel all you want DHK. The spiritual is real.
Scripture is very clear that Eve gave birth after Cain and Abel.Genesis 4:25
Adam had relations with his wife again; and she gave birth to a son, and named him Seth, for, she said, "God has appointed me another offspring in place of Abel, for Cain killed him."
~Grace~ is the two issues the Marys children and virginity? What about His sisters in Matt.13:56?Either address the two issues I just raised, or I will be forced to assume you have no answers, since instead of responding, you simply bring up another issue. This can only mean you have nothing else to say about what I have proposed.
Herein lies the greatest problem. Your authority is the church (the RCC). In other words you have a fallible source. You also must take the doctrines of that source, (as wrong and fallible as they may be) and force them into the Scriptures, when the Scriptures don't teach as such. This takes much spiritualization (as you can see Kathryn doing at the present), allegorization (examples given recently from Ezekiel 44), and reading into a void of Scripture things that are not there (infants being baptized among the 3000 of Acts 2). These methods of hermeneutics are wrong, and by using them you can make the Bible say anything you want it to say: black becomes white, and white becomes black. The real meaning is totally obscured. The reason again: The Catholic Church's teaching has been given more authority than the Bible, and consequently must then be attempted to be supported by the Bible by the Catholic apologist any way he can.Originally posted by GraceSaves:
DHK,
My authority is the Church. Your authority is you. You interpret these passages in the light of your Protestant forefathers. I do not. You will read into it that Mary had other children. But even in the 16th century, the greatest reformation scholars still saw it plainly there: Mary was always a virgin.
Mary's perpetual virginity only points to the glory of her Son. THAT is why it is important to me. It is a living testimony of Him being God incarnate.
As you just read, I have given you much to think about. I posted that before. Haven't you read it? What is the role of a mother in the Jewish economy? Why did Rebekkah cry out to Isaac: "Give children or I die!"I can see, though, that you have no argument. You simply questioned my concern instead of my argument in my last post. Kind of like you questioned my concern on the immediacy issue without actually responding to it.
If I haven't addressed your points to your satisfaction, you will have to point out where I haven't. I have tried, but I don't know where I have failed (if I have).Neither of those points has yet been logically disputed. You and Larry simply come in declaring we are wrong and holding on to vain traditions...that you simply can't prove wrong from the material.
By the way, I appreciate you stating that the belief is not anti-Biblical, but merely extra-Biblical (and only then in the fullness of understanding of it). That's a good start.
Matthew 13:55-56 Is not this the carpenter's son? is not his mother called Mary? and his brethren, James, and Joses, and Simon, and Judas?Originally posted by GraceSaves:
DHK,
Unless the verses you site state that the males listed are children of Mary, you only assume they are. The text never states it. Thus, you read into Scripture. Why is it impossible, as has been mentioned, that they are only Joseph's children? You reject it because you believe beforehand that Mary MUST have had other children.
Oh, and you ARE a Protestant.![]()
They were important in fullfillment of prophecy about Jesus being born of a virgin in Is 7. If Joseph had had relations before this time the prophecy would have been a lie. Now what purpose would the verse have in calling out Mary and Josephs sex life thereafter. I would contend that there are implications in the OT with regard to Mary's perpetual virginity which are forshadowed in the Ark of the Covenant.Originally posted by music4Him:
What I am trying to say about Matt.1:25 is why did Matthew even mention those two things if its not of importance?
Thanks
Music4Him
Originally posted by music4Him:Originally posted by music4Him:
Thank you ~Thess~ for pointing something out to me.
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I now need to make a correction in my post.
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />
Repeating yourself is only good if what you said the first time was correct. It was not.Originally posted by Kathryn:
I realize I am repeating myself here, but once again I will say:
And Col 1 gives an entirely different meaning to firstborn, and Rev 1:5 gives an even different one. The point is that words have meaning in context. There is not point for Matthew to say "firstborn" if he was the "only born." It has no meaning.Romans 8 tells us in what sense Jesus Christ is the firstborn and who his brethren are:
This is never said in Scripture. It is a figment of the RCC's imagination.Mary’s other children are Jesus Christ’s brethren who do the will of the Father.